Thomas' exclamation does not cancel out the rest of the apostles' statement. Since the Bible does not contradict itself, then Thomas was NOT contradicting the other apostles. "Theos" doesn't just mean Yahweh....it can be any 'god-like' individual or one who is authorized by Yahweh to carry out a task. Yahweh called the judges in Israel "gods"......were they his equal? "Lord" is a title of respect, not another name for Yahweh.
Your spirit of delusion, preaching that there are many actual gods, is exposed by your lies that you post.
YOU ARE GODS and MANY GODS
The figure of speech called an oxymoron respecting "you are gods" (Psalm 82:6, John 10:34) and "many gods" (1 Corinthians 8:5).
Scripturally addressing your unreasonable scope claim that there are many gods with respect to the New Testament.
The Greek word θεὸς (Strong's 2316 - also Θεὸν - Theos, theos [transliteration] - God, Deity, god, deity [English]) can be dependent upon surrounding grammar and context.
The Greek word ἄγγελος (Strong's 32 - aggelos [transliteration] - messenger, angel [English]) is the parlance for angel in the New Testament, and the word θεὸς (God) is never used to refer to an ἄγγελος (angel) in the New Testament.
In the 27 books of the New Testament, the word "god" is used in one of two ways.
The first way is in the good sense which is in reference to YHWH, and I prefer a capital "G" for the good sense, like this, YHWH God.
The second way is in the evil sense which can be in reference to the devil, and I prefer a lower case "g" for the evil sense, like this, the god of this world.
Only two senses for the word "god" exists, and the senses are either good or evil. There is no middle ground.
Of the over 1000 times that the Greek word θεὸς (Strong's 2316 - also Θεὸν - God, god) or it's inflections are used in the New Testament, only the good sense or the evil sense indicated above are represented, as shown in this concordance page
blueletterbible.org/lexicon/g2316/nasb95/tr/0-1/, and I reviewed all the included verses to make certain - and θεὸς (God) is not used one time to indicate angels.
The good sense for the word θεὸς (God) applies to Jesus; therefore, Thomas declares Jesus is YHWH God in John 20:28 for only God is good (Mark 10:18).
Let's look at the definition and etymology of the word "oxymoron".
Oxymoron: noun, A rhetorical figure in which incongruous or contradictory terms are combined, as in a deafening silence and a mournful optimist.
[Greek (attested only in Latin sources) oxumōron, an expression that is witty because paradoxical, from neuter of *oxumōros, pointedly foolish : Greek oxus, sharp, keen; see oxygen + mōros, dull, foolish.]
From the American Heritage® Dictionary of the English Language, Fifth Edition Copyright © 2016 by Houghton Mifflin Harcourt Publishing Company. Published by Houghton Mifflin Harcourt Publishing Company. All rights reserved.
"You are gods" (John 10:34 and Psalm 82:6) - the unanimous oxymoron found in both the Old Testament and New Testament.
Watchtower Society people and their ilk practice lawlessness (Matthew 7:21-23) throughout their writings, for example, their foolish words along the lines of Jesus "confessed that his Father called the judges in Israel 'gods'" in support of their deception about John 10:34 where Jesus refers back to "I said, 'You are gods'" (Psalm 82:6) as recorded in John 10:34.
Now, who is the "I" in "I said" in Psalm 82:6? The "I" is Asaph as identified in Psalm 82:1, so the quote in Psalm 82:6 is not God the Father speaking; therefore, you lie when you write things like Jesus "confessed that his Father called the judges in Israel 'gods'"!
The Jews knew that Jesus proclaimed Himself to be God with "I and the Father are one" (John 10:30, but see John 10 in general), yet the Jews denied rhe Righteousness of Jesus for the Apostle John shows immediately after Jesus' words that "the Jews picked up stones again to stone Him" (John 10:31).
The Jews themselves explained their own actions "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God" (John 10:33), so the Jews deny Jesus' Deity, yet Jesus openly proclaims His Deity.
Watchtower Society people are in league with the Jews.
We Christians believe the Apostle John's words. John declares that John believes that Jesus "was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God" (John 5:18).
The fact is that the Apostle John is the person who proclaimed that Jesus made Himself equal with God (John 5:18). John wrote in such a way that John expresses John's belief that Jesus is equal with God (John 5:18). Equality with God is to be God.
In John 10:34-36, Jesus, who is God (John 1:1-3, John 1:14, John 5:18, John 8:58, John 20:28, Isaiah 9:6, 2 Peter 1:1, Titus 2:13), rebukes the Jews.
See that Jesus words of "Has it not been written in your Law, "I said, 'you are gods'? If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came and the Scripture cannot be broken, do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, 'You are blaspheming,' because I said, 'I am the Son of God'?" (John 10:34-36) refers back to the psalmist passage rebuking the Jews (Psalm 82:6).
Notice that Jesus' words integrate the greater of Psalm 82 by referencing a small portion because Jesus says "the Scripture cannot be broken" (John 10:35); furthermore, a person can use a small portion of scripture to integrate a fuller passage - a technique used by Jesus.
In fact, here is what Asaph said that Asaph said "You are gods, And all of you are sons of the Most High, Nevertheless you will die like men And fall like any one of the princes" (Psalm 82:6-7), so Asaph employed an oxymoron effectively conveying "you are not gods" to the Jews; in other words, both Asaph and Jesus told the people that they are no gods at all, and that the people know not righteousness (Psalm 82:1-8) for God is not like a man that dies (Numbers 23:19), and God knows the way of righteousness (Psalm 1:6).
Like the Jews, you yourself cannot judge what is right (Luke 12:57). The context of the people NOT being "gods" is clear in John 10:34-36 and Psalm 82:6-7.
As is evident in John 10:34-36 based on the above Truth (John 14:6), Lord and God Jesus (John 20:28) was not saying that there are potentially additional gods before the One True God as you preach, but rather Jesus eliminates the potential for the Jews to be gods.
While Jesus told the Jews that they are not gods - not even able to discern the Righteous Branch, Jesus, standing before them, Jesus declares Himself to be YHWH God to the Jews with "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I AM" (John 8:58).
Furthermore, the Apostle John expressed that Jesus is God (John 1:1). The context for "God" is clear in John 1:1 for there is only One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4-5), and the word "theos" is in the context of the good sense in John 1:1.
Paul conveyed that the world's "many gods" are false, but that One God is real.
The Word of God (John 1:1-5, John 1:14) says "I am YHWH, and there is no other; besides Me there is no God" (Isaiah 45:5).
The Apostle Paul is in accord with the Word of God for Paul wrote "Therefore concerning the eating of things sacrificed to idols, we know that there is no such thing as an idol in the world, and that there is no God but one. For even if there are so-called gods whether in heaven or on earth, as indeed there are many gods and many lords, yet for us there is but one God the Father from whom are all things and we exist for Him and one Lord Jesus Christ by whom are all things, and we exist through Him" (1 Corinthians 8:4-6).
The "one God" is the person of the Father and the person of Lord Jesus Christ per Paul in verse 6.
Paul wrote "there is no such thing as an idol in the world" in verse 4, yet people have idols.
Paul establishes that he is being illustrative with "no such thing as an idol" because people have many false gods and masters (lords) in the world (verse 5).
Paul utilized rhetoric when describing idols, "many gods", and "many lords"; on the other hand, Paul wrote in absolute terms when describing the One True God.
In verse 4 and verse 6, Paul establishes there is One God, so his "as indeed there are many gods and many lords" (verse 5) cannot be his endorsement of the existence of true gods in addition to his declared One God in verse 4 and 6 - after all Paul had just classified the "many gods" as "so-called gods".
Paul encapsulated that the "many gods" are false gods.
Paul used the linguistic oxymoron construction to effectively convey that there are no other gods and there is One YHWH God.
The word of you is "I am Jehovah, and there are others; besides Me there are Gods" (your heart's adulterated version based on your writings).
The Apostle Thomas is not going to refer to Jesus as "a god" because such a thing results in two gods. According to your heart's treasure, you claim to have:
Jehovah God + Jesus a god = two gods.
You subtract the fullness of "God" in John 20:28; therefore, you have more than one God because you say that John 20:28 means that Jesus is "a god".
Since your heart contends that Jesus is "a god" necessarily before Jehovah God for your salvation, then you have more than one god which places you in violation of "You shall have no other gods before Me" (Exodus 20:3).
THE GREEK WORD THEOS (GOD) EXCLUSIVELY REFERS TO THE ONE TRUE GOD (DEUTERONOMY 6:4) IN THE GOOD SENSE IN THE NEW TESTAMENT, SO "MY GOD" (JOHN 20:28) REFERS TO JESUS AS THE ONE TRUE GOD.
... like this. Why, Rich? Why is that? It's terribly dishonest. And I'll add, too, that the Father and the Son do not merely aim ~ and certainly do not fail, even sometimes ~ to be perfectly unified in purpose. 
