John 1:1 - Jesus is the Father or he's not the one true God?

[Kermos]

Nope...."God with us" can mean that God is "with" his people in any number of ways. Was God "with" his chosen people Israel when he was rescuing them from Egyptian slavery? How did he show that he was with them?

How does Jesus show that he is "with" his disciples? He doesn't have to be God to do that.

Your spirit of delusion, preaching that Jesus is not God with us directly contradicting the Apostle Matthew in Matthew 1:23, is exposed by your lies that you post.

A crucial point is to look at the actual writings of the Apostle Matthew "'Behold, the virgin will hold in womb, and will bring forth a son, and they will call His name Immanuel' which is, being translated, 'God with us'" (Matthew 1:23), and Matthew even quoted the Prophet Isaiah (Isaiah 7:14) therein.

You try to divert from the specific matter at hand with your first two questions. Your third question appears to be rhetorical because you attempted to answer yourself.

The specific matter at hand, the blessed Apostolic testimony is this Truth (John 14:6), that the person of Jesus is called Immanuel which means He is God with us (Matthew 1:23) because calling Him "God with us" is equivalent to saying "you are God with us".

We must address the relevance of names.

A commandant written by the very finger of God about the value of God's Name "You shall not take the name of YHWH your God in vain, for YHWH will not leave him unpunished who takes His name in vain" (Exodus 20:7).

Names are significant, as is revealed again and again in Scripture.

Names reveal things about character and/or attributes, as is revealed again and again in Scripture.

Immanuel's Name is holy.

Immanuel's Name reveals that this Holy One of God is the only One True God with us (Deuteronomy 6:4, Matthew 1:23, John 6:69)!

No one else bears the Name of Immanuel in the Bible, so the attribute of being "God with us" is unique to Jesus, truly God!

You have taken God's memorial-name to all generations (Exodus 3:15) of "I AM", even "I AM Who I AM", (Exodus 3:14) in vain because your heart illegitimately adulterates the Word of God revealing God's ever-present memorial-name to all generations into your "I will be who I will be" (the word of Aunty Jane recorded in a post on this site), so you sin against God.

In effect, you think "I am not who I will be" is God’s memorial-name to all generations.

In effect, you also think "I will be who I will be so I am not being at this moment" is God’s memorial-name to all generations.

The Names of God include YHWH (Exodus 20:7), I AM (Exodus 3:14), Immanuel (Matthew 1:23), and Jesus (Matthew 1:21, Luke 1:34-35).

Jesus proclaims He is "I AM" (Exodus 3:14) by applying God’s memorial-name to all generations unto Himself with "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58). This is accurate Spiritually, and the grammar is accurate according to the rules of the original languages.

You adulterate the very Name of God in your heart, and you think God is not who God says God is, as carefully shown above.

"to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace" (Isaiah 9:6).

 

[Rich R]

That was not my suggestion, Rich.


Not at all. Paul makes his context very clear there, and the sentence structure is very clear.


I would ask you the very same question, Rich. From this "question," I trust that you know what a complex appositive phrase is, and that's exactly what we're looking at in 1 Corinthians 8:6, as I said. Here it is again:

"...yet for us there is one God, the Father, from Whom are all things and for Whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through Whom are all things and through Whom we exist."​

As I said, 'God' is further defined by the compound appositive phrase that follows: "the Father... and one Lord." It is compound because of the connecting 'and, ' which serves as the correlative conjunction between the two simple appositive phrases. And further, "Father" is the antecedent of its own complex prepositional phrase ~ "from Whom are all things and for Whom we exist," and in like manner, "Lord, Jesus Christ" is the antecedent of its own complex prepositional phrase ~ "through whom are all things and through whom we exist." And these are compound also because of the correlative conjunctions ('and' in both) between the two simple appositive phrases, respectively.

If Corinthians said, "...yet for us there is one God, who is the Father, from Whom are all things and for Whom we exist, and who is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through Whom are all things and through Whom we exist." you might have something. But those words "who is" are not there.

Even if "who is" was there, it is a rather convoluted way of saying it. Since, according to most Christians, our very salvation depends on believing Jesus is God, it would seem a bit disingenuous of God to say it in such a complicated way. You'd think, wanting all men to be saved, God would have made it more clear, maybe something like, "...to us there is but one God, who is the Father and the Son." Of course Corinthians says no such thing.

For me there is but one car, the Mustang, and one airplane, the Boeing 767. So the car is both a Mustang and Boeing 767? No! We are talking about a car and an airplane. Exactly like Corinthians is talking about a God, specifically our Father and a Lord, specifically Jesus Christ.

I might also point out that 1 Corinthians 8:6 says all things are "from" God and "through" Jesus. There is a difference between being "from" something and being "through" something. "From" denotes the principle origin, "through" denotes agency. Huge difference.

In addition, we still have Jesus' clear declaration that only the person to whom he spoke was the true God, i.e., his (and our) Father.

John 17:3,

And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
​

Jesus was not talking to himself here!

 

[tigger 2]

Your spirit of delusion, preaching that Thomas has more than one god based on John 20:28, is exposed by your lies that you post.

Your first sentence there is absolutely correct! Thomas' exclamation that Jesus is Thomas' Lord does not cancel out Thomas' continuing with the Apostle Thomas' statement declaring that Jesus is Thomas' God!

"Thomas answered and said to Him, 'My Lord and my God!'" (John 20:28).

In effect, Thomas declares "you are my Lord, and you are my God".

Thomas knew the commandant "You shall have no other gods before Me" (Exodus 20:3); therefore, Thomas referred to Jesus as YHWH God with "my God" in John 20:28 because Thomas would not violate the commandment.

Thomas has no gods before YHWH God, that is, Jesus is YHWH God according to the words of the Apostle Thomas.

Thomas knew that God is One (Deuteronomy 6:4), and Thomas made it clear that Jesus is the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) in John 20:28.

This means that the Apostle Thomas confesses Jesus, Thomas' God, is everlasting YHWH God!

You impose your unbelieving thoughts upon Thomas with your words "god-like" to make Jesus into "a god", yet Thomas did not say "god-like". Truly, Thomas declares unto Jesus that is his only One True God, YHWH God!

...........................................
1. John 20:28 is a statement by Thomas who had refused to believe that Jesus had been resurrected. His statement is a phrase without subject or verb and if subject and verb are to be supplied by the translator, it could read “you are My Lord and My God.” It is more likely, however, that it would be translated more like “My Lord and my God be praised.” This would mean that the phrase was meant as a doxology to the Father. Doxologies and other commonly used phrases frequently have words missing in the Greek text.

Many trinitarians say, instead, that this phrase by Thomas was an ADDRESS to Jesus. If true, this would mean that Thomas was naming Jesus by these words. However, it is rare that a person is addressed and not spoken to further. For example, “Then they said to him, ‘Lord, always give us this bread.’” (John 6:34).

However, there is actual proof that John did not intend this as an ADDRESS to Jesus.

You see, whenever John, and the other NT writers, used “Lord” as a noun of address, they used the form of the word known as a vocative. This means that if John understood Thomas’ word as an address to Jesus, he would write the word kurie. There are 33 uses of kurie in the Gospel of John alone. Here are a few of them: John 9:38; 11:3, 12, 21, 27, 32, 34, 39; 13:6, 9, 25, 36, 37; 14:5. (Compare these with an actual identification of the lord: “it is the lord [kurios],” John 21:7). Whereas when the NT writers intended it as a subject (“The Lord then answered him..." - Luke 13:15) they used the nominative form of the word (Kurios). Kurios is the form used at John 20:28.

So, the probability is that this incomplete phrase is a doxology to the Father.

Furthermore, if John had, somehow, understood Thomas’ statement as some trinitarians insist, he certainly would have provided some follow-up clarification and emphasis in his own comments.

Surely John would have shown Thomas prostrating himself before “God” and worshiping him (but he doesn’t!). So how does John summarize this incident?

- “But these were written that you may believe [Believe what? That Jesus is God? Here, then, is where it should have been written if John really believed such a thing:] that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God.” - John 20:31, RSV. (Be sure to compare 1 John 5:5.)

Or, as the trinitarian The NIV Study Bible, Zondervan, 1985, states in a footnote for this scripture:

“This whole Gospel is written to show the truth of Jesus’ Messiahship and to present him as the Son of God, so that the readers may believe in him.”

Obviously, neither Jesus’ response, nor Thomas’ responses (before and after his statement at John 20:28), nor John’s summation of the event at 20:31 recognizes Thomas’ statement to mean that Jesus is the only true God!

See my study of this scripture here:

Examining the Trinity: MYGOD

 

[Kermos]

No again! John calls Jesus the "Logos" because he was God's spokesman down through mankind's history. He is the appointed "mediator between God and men"...so if Jesus was God, how does he mediate between God and men if he himself is God? Its nonsense!

Your spirit of delusion, preaching that the Word is not God (or a lesser god or just "a god") directly contradicting the Apostle John in John 1:1, is exposed by your lies that you post.

It is written "Your Word, O YHWH, is everlasting" (Psalm 119:89), so the "Word" mentioned in John 1:1 is eternal, thus uncreated.

Jesus is the Word as illuminated in John 1:1-5, John 1:14, and Luke 1:1-2 - The word "Word" defined in scripture.

"Inasmuch as many have undertaken to compile an account of the things accomplished among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and servants of the Word" (Luke 1:1-2).

Luke wrote "eyewitnesses" "of the Word" (Luke 1:2), and the "eyewitnesses" includes people like the Apostle Thomas who humbly acknowledged "My Lord and my God" to to TO Jesus (John 20:28).

Not just "earwitnesses" of the Word, but they were also "eyewitnesses" "of the Word" (Luke 1:2). Luke does specifically declare that they SAW the Word - they saw Jesus for Jesus is the Word of God!

They were "eyewitnesses" of Lord Jesus Christ the Word.

In Luke 1:1-2, the word "Word" is translated from the Greek word "Logos".

Luke further elaborates that the "eyewitnesses" "of the Word" (Luke 1:2) are also "servants of the Word" (Luke 1:2), so the "eyewitnesses" see and hear and serve the Word of God.

The "eyewitnesses" includes people like the Apostle John who illuminates the Word is Jesus with "the Word became flesh" (John 1:14).

In John 1:14, the word "Word" is translated from the Greek word "Logos".

Both the Apostle John and Luke illuminate that Jesus is the Word.

Thus John refers to Jesus in John 1:1-5 as the "Word" and "He" and "Him" and "Life" and "Light":

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being. In Him was life, and the Life was the Light of men. The Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend it.
​

In John 1:1-5, the word "Word" is translated from the Greek word "Logos".

The following describes how "Word", "He", "Him", "Life", and "Light" all refer to Jesus.

The first word of John 1:2 is "He", and that "He" is the "Word" in John 1:1, and that "He" in John 1:2 is the "Him" in John 1:3 and John 1:4; moreover, the "Him" in John 1:3 is the "Life" in John 1:4, and the "Him" in John 1:3 is the "Light" in John 1:4 and John 1:5.

Truly, we have a Spiritually accurate linguistic linkage from "Light" in John 1:5 back to "Word" in John 1:1.

Jesus says "While I am in the world, I am the Light of the world" (John 9:6), so we have Jesus being the Light in John 1:4-5 and John 9:6.

God is Light (1 John 1:5), so, clearly, since Jesus is Light, then Jesus is YHWH God.

Jesus says "I am the Way, the Truth, and the Life" (John 14:6), so we have Jesus being the Life in in John 1:4 and John 14:6.

John witnesses that Jesus is the Word with "the Word became flesh" (John 1:14), so we have John further identifying Jesus as the Word (Logos).

John knew of the commandant "You shall have no other gods before Me" (Exodus 20:3), and John would not violate the commandment.

Lord Jesus Christ is the Word of God (John 1:1-5, John 1:14), a.k.a. the Logos of Theos, and the Word of God is God for the Apostle proclaims "the Word was God" (John 1:1) which means the Word is the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) because John has no other gods before YHWH God - not even "a god" which is your antichrist label for Jesus.

Jesus, truly God, is the God of Jesus, truly Man; moreover, Jesus, truly God, is God with the Father.

Jesus reveals Himself as truly God and truly Man at His discretion because Jesus Christ is truly Man (Luke 1:26-33) - the Son of Man, and Jesus Christ is truly God (Luke 1:34-35, John 8:58, John 20:28, John 5:18, John 10:30-31) - the Son of God.

The Apostle John is not going to refer to Jesus as "a god" because such a thing results in two gods. According to your heart's treasure, you claim to have:

Jehovah God + Jesus a god = two gods.

You subtract the fullness of "God" in John 1:1; therefore, you have more than one God because you say that John 1:1 contains "the Word was a god".

Since your heart contends that Jesus is "a god" necessarily before Jehovah God for your salvation, then you have more than one god which places you in violation of "You shall have no other gods before Me" (Exodus 20:3), so you practice lawless sin.

THE GREEK WORD THEOS (GOD) EXCLUSIVELY REFERS TO THE ONE TRUE GOD (DEUTERONOMY 6:4) IN THE GOOD SENSE IN THE NEW TESTAMENT, SO "IN THE BEGINNING WAS THE WORD, AND THE WORD WAS WITH GOD, AND THE WORD WAS GOD" (JOHN 1:1) REFERS TO JESUS AS THE ONE TRUE GOD.

The Truth (John 14:6) is that Jesus is God for the ever living Word of God proclaims this Truth "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58) and the Word of God says "I will settle him in My house and in My kingdom forever, and his throne shall be established forever" (1 Chronicles 17:14), so according to the Word, Lord Jesus existed in eternity past and will exist in eternity future which means the Word is uncreated thus the Word proclaims that the Word is YHWH God for there is NO other that exists in eternity past and future (Isaiah 45:5).

 

[Jack]

Acts 2:36,

Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.
​

This verse says God made Jesus both Lord and Christ, i.e., our savior. It says nothing about Jesus being God. In fact, if Jesus is God, it would be odd that God had to make him anything at all. I mean, if Jesus was God he would not need to be made something? Of course not. Does God need some other God to make Himself anything. It makes no sense.

Heading for hell fire? What an awful thing to say to a brother! You should be ashamed and repent.

I don't know how to repent for believing the Bible.
NWT Thomas said to Jesus, "My Lord and my God".

 

[face2face]

If Corinthians said, "...yet for us there is one God, who is the Father, from Whom are all things and for Whom we exist, and who is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through Whom are all things and through Whom we exist." you might have something. But those words "who is" are not there.

Even if "who is" was there, it is a rather convoluted way of saying it. Since, according to most Christians, our very salvation depends on believing Jesus is God, it would seem a bit disingenuous of God to say it in such a complicated way. You'd think, wanting all men to be saved, God would have made it more clear, maybe something like, "...to us there is but one God, who is the Father and the Son." Of course Corinthians says no such thing.

For me there is but one car, the Mustang, and one airplane, the Boeing 767. So the car is both a Mustang and Boeing 767? No! We are talking about a car and an airplane. Exactly like Corinthians is talking about a God, specifically our Father and a Lord, specifically Jesus Christ.

I might also point out that 1 Corinthians 8:6 says all things are "from" God and "through" Jesus. There is a difference between being "from" something and being "through" something. "From" denotes the principle origin, "through" denotes agency. Huge difference.

In addition, we still have Jesus' clear declaration that only the person to whom he spoke was the true God, i.e., his (and our) Father.

John 17:3,

And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
​

Jesus was not talking to himself here!

As you are finding it's impossible to reconcile trinitarian formula with the teaching of the Apostles. The conflict exists only because Jesus reflected the character of God perfectly and by this became the direct manifestation of God which is why we have all those verses describing him as the Word made Flesh and things being made by him and for him.

Jesus Christ a spiritual creation and once the Christian understands this fact all Scripture falls into place!

F2F

 

[HIM]

Trinitarian Greek expert, W. E. Vine, (although, for obvious reasons, he chooses not to accept it as the proper interpretation) admits that the literal translation of John 1:1c is: “a god was the Word”. - p. 490, An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, Thomas Nelson, Inc., 1983 printing.

Professor C. H. Dodd, director of the New English Bible project, also admits this is a proper literal translation:

“A possible translation [for John 1:1c] ... would be, ‘The Word was a god.’ As a word-for-word translation it cannot be faulted.” - Technical Papers for the Bible Translator, vol. 28, Jan. 1977.

The reason Prof. Dodd rejected “a god” as the actual meaning intended by John is simply because it upset his trinitarian interpretation of John’s Gospel!

Rev. J. W. Wenham wrote in his The Elements of New Testament Greek: “Therefore as far as grammar alone is concerned, such a sentence could be printed: θεὸς ἐστιν ὁ λόγος, which would mean either, ‘The Word is a god’, or, ‘The Word is the god’.” - p. 35, Cambridge University Press, 1965.

(Of course if you carefully, properly examine this study, you will find that the grammar really shows that ‘The Word was in John 1:1c a god’ is what John intended.)

Trinitarian NT scholar Prof. Murray J. Harris also admits that grammatically John 1:1c may be properly translated, ‘the Word was a god,’ but his trinitarian bias makes him claim that “John’s monotheism” will not allow such an interpretation. - p. 60, Jesus as God, Baker Book House, 1992. However, his acknowledgment of the use of “god” for men at John 10:34-36 and the use of “god/gods” for angels, judges, and other men in the Hebrew OT Scriptures contradicts his above excuse for not accepting the literal translation. - p. 202, Jesus as God.

And Dr. J. D. BeDuhn in his Truth in Translation states about John 1:1c:

“‘And the Word was a god.’ The preponderance of evidence from Greek grammar… supports this translation.” - p. 132, University Press of America, Inc., 2003.

Trinitarian Dr. Robert Young admits that a more literal translation of John 1:1c is “and a God (i.e. a Divine Being) was the Word” - p. 54, (‘New Covenant’ section), Young’s Concise Critical Bible Commentary, Baker Book House, 1977 printing.

And popular Bible scholar, author, and Bible translator, trinitarian Dr. William Barclay wrote: “You could translate [John 1:1c], so far as the Greek goes: ‘the Word was a God’; but it seems obvious that this is so much against the whole of the rest of the New Testament that it is wrong.” - p. 205, Ever yours, edited by C. L. Rawlins, Labarum Publ., 1985.

You see, in ancient times many of God’s servants had no qualms about using the word “god” or “gods” for godly men, kings, judges, and even angels.

New Testament Greek expert Joseph H. Thayer defines theos:

““θεός is used of whatever can in any respect be likened to God or resembles him in any way: Hebraistically, i.q. God’s representative or vicegerent, of magistrates and judges.” - p. 288, Thayer’s Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament.


To see the proof of John’s intended meaning of “a god” at John 1:1c, see my personal studies:

Examining the Trinity or Examining the Trinity: John 1:1c Primer - For Grammatical Rules That Supposedly "Prove" the Trinity

Or we can read it for what it says. Keep in mind the definite article is being used throughout the text, so contextually it is speaking of "the" God not a God.
And God was the word. Not, and the word was a god.

And please be careful. Jesus wasn't a fan of the Scholars of His day, and neither should we. Preconceived notions, ideas, sin and pride can hinder our understanding. I don't wish to debate this statement and won't, just sayin.....

(John 1:1 [TRi])
Ἐν In
ἀρχῇ Beginning
ἦν Was
ὁ The
λόγος Word,
καὶ And
ὁ The
λόγος Word
ἦν Was
πρὸς With
τὸν the
θεόν God,
καὶ And
θεὸς God
ἦν Was
ὁ The
λόγος Word.

 

[HIM]

Once again, Scott, I gotta tell ya. Your wisdom and knowledge of the Bible is humbling.

Those of us who stand for exactly what Scripture says are very foolish and I just can't help thinking ...Here's a little smidgeon for ya.
Hebrews 1:8

Heaven forbid it could actually mean what it says, though. That would be ignorant to believe.

The issue is not understanding who we are meant to be and the how and why. Here are a few verses. Prayers and blessings that we be enlightened by Him and His Word.

(John 10:32 [KJV])
Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?

(John 10:33 [KJV])
The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

(John 10:34 [KJV])
Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?

(John 10:35 [KJV])
If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;

(John 10:36 [KJV])
Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

(John 10:37 [KJV])
If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not.

(Heb 1:6 [KJV])
And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.

(Heb 2:10 [KJV])
For it became him, for whom are all things, and by whom are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the captain of their salvation perfect through sufferings.

(Heb 2:11 [KJV])
For both he that sanctifieth and they who are sanctified are all of one: for which cause he is not ashamed to call them brethren,

(Heb 2:12 [KJV])
Saying, I will declare thy name unto my brethren, in the midst of the church will I sing praise unto thee.

(Heb 2:13 [KJV])
And again, I will put my trust in him. And again, Behold I and the children which God hath given me.


(Acts 17:26 [KJV])
And hath made of one blood all nations of men for to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation;

(Acts 17:27 [KJV])
That they should seek the Lord, if haply they might feel after him, and find him, though he be not far from every one of us:

(Acts 17:28 [KJV])
For in him we live, and move, and have our being; as certain also of your own poets have said, For we are also his offspring.

(Acts 17:29 [KJV])
Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Godhead is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, graven by art and man's device.

 

[HIM]

lol. Confine yourself only to the verses I give, (but all verses have to fit…)
Don’t bring ANY of the rest of Gods words into the discussion because they don’t fit my indoctrination.
Are you serious man?

To often to many think they can prove a text says one thing by another text, when the text states what it says all by itself. This bad exegesis a lot of times. Context and grammar within the passage in question is where answers are found, so yeah he is serious. And for the record I am not debating this, so if you respond, just know I am not going through the roundabout with you concerning this. I was just sharing. Take care

 

[Rich R]

I don't know how to repent for believing the Bible.
NWT Thomas said to Jesus, "My Lord and my God".

Then you should be able to find a clear verse that says I'm going to burn in hell for believing that Jesus is Lord and that God raised him from the dead (Rom 10:9-10)?

 

[Rich R]

As you are finding it's impossible to reconcile trinitarian formula with the teaching of the Apostles. The conflict exists only because Jesus reflected the character of God perfectly and by this became the direct manifestation of God which is why we have all those verses describing him as the Word made Flesh and things being made by him and for him.

Jesus Christ a spiritual creation and once the Christian understands this fact all Scripture falls into place!

F2F

Exactly! It's so simple. If we know who the two main characters are, Jesus and God, the story makes way more sense. In fact, making the two into one all but makes the Bible unintelligible.

 

[Jack]

Then you should be able to find a clear verse that says I'm going to burn in hell for believing that Jesus is Lord and that God raised him from the dead (Rom 10:9-10)?

You have a different savior than Christians.
Luke 1:47
47 And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior.

 

[GRACE ambassador]

Jesus says "While I am in the world, I am the Light of the world" (John 9:6), so we have Jesus being the Light in John 1:4-5 and John 9:6.

God is Light (1 John 1:5), so, clearly, since Jesus is Light, then Jesus is YHWH God.

Amen! Slight correction would be John 9:5
+
"God Is Light" Is Also In Psalms 27:1

 

[tigger 2]

Amen! Slight correction would be John 9:5
+
"God Is Light" Is Also In Psalms 27:1

.....................
Jesus' disciples are light - Matt. 5:14

 

[Pearl]

Jesus is God the Son. He can't be God the Father as God is God the Father and neither can he be God the Holy Spirit. This the true gospel - good news - that our God in human form died an agonising death so that we might be spared the punishment for our sin. He paid the ransom price in blood. If you do not believe that then I am sorry but you aren't a Christian - yet.

 

[Kermos]

You have been shown this 100 times.....God never said his name was "I Am"....look it up in the Tanakh....

One more time, just so you can never say we didn't show you from the Jewish scriptures that were translated into English....


"And Moses said to God, "Behold I come to the children of Israel, and I say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they say to me, 'What is His name?' what shall I say to them?" יגוַיֹּ֨אמֶר משֶׁ֜ה אֶל־הָֽאֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּ֨ה אָֽנֹכִ֣י בָא֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ וְאָֽמַרְתִּ֣י לָהֶ֔ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י אֲבֽוֹתֵיכֶ֖ם שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם וְאָֽמְרוּ־לִ֣י מַה־שְּׁמ֔וֹ מָ֥ה אֹמַ֖ר אֲלֵהֶֽם:




14 God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'" ידוַיֹּ֤אמֶר אֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־משֶׁ֔ה אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר כֹּ֤ה תֹאמַר֙ לִבְנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה שְׁלָחַ֥נִי אֲלֵיכֶֽם:




15 And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation. טווַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר:" (Exodus 3:13-15 Tanakh)

"The Lord God" is "יְהֹוָ֞ה" (Yahweh)....and his mane means "I will be what I will be".....Yahweh was to be known by this name "forever".....but the Jews stopped uttering it....and lost its Hebrew pronunciation.

Your spirit of delusion, preaching that God's memorial-name is "I wiil be" instead of the ever-present "I AM" in Exodus 3:14 proves that you do not understand the Hebrew language - your deception which you then extend against Jesus self-declaring that He is "I AM" in John 20:28, is exposed by your lies that you post.

"I AM" is not "I will be" in Exodus 3:14 according to the Hebrew word eyheh with legal Hebrew grammar.

The old debunked and worn out and evil Watchtower Society Exodus 3:14 delusion is presented by you. You people do not understand Hebrew, then you deceive each other and you deceive yourself (2 Timothy 3:13).

The Hebrew word אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה (eyheh, am, Strong's 1961) is an imperfect verb, and this word is translated "I AM" in Exodus 3:14 (the "I" occurs because eyheh is singular in Hebrew).

A perfect verb is a word that conveys a completed action; in other words, an action that occurred in the past.

An imperfect verb is a word that conveys an incomplete action; in other words, an action occurs past into present, present, and/or future.

With the imperfect verb eyheh being used for the Name of the One who is and who was and who is to come, then we use I AM for eyheh in English because YHWH God is I AM in the past and YHWH God is I AM in the present and YHWH God is I AM in the future.

You're contrivance of eyheh being "I will be" indicates that you think that YHWH God will become YHWH God at some time in the future after YHWH God speaks to Moses at the burning bush.

In other words, you think that YHWH God has to be created! This is according to your words of "I will be" for eyheh.

In effect, you think "I am not who I will be" is God's memorial-name to all generations.

In effect, you also think "I will be who I will be so I am not being at this moment" is God's memorial-name to all generations.

See where your contrivance leads.

"I AM Who I AM" is the accurate English translation for Exodus 3:14 of the Hebrew TaNaKh - the Hebrew Bible, and here is the full of Exodus 3:14:

God said to Moses, "I AM WHO I AM"; and He said, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, 'I AM has sent me to you.'" God, furthermore, said to Moses, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, 'The LORD, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is My memorial-name to all generations." (Exodus 3:14-15).

All three of the phrases "I AM" in Exodus 3:14 are eyheh; therefore, the Word of God assigns the name "I AM" to YHWH God.

Now look at these other TaNaKh scriptures which use ehyeh and see how "I am" is the accurate translation:
YHWH speaks: "I am with you" (Genesis 26:3, YLT)
YHWH speaks: "I am with you" (Genesis 31:3, YLT)
YHWH speaks: "I am with you" (Exodus 3:12, YLT)
YHWH speaks: "I am with your mouth" (Exodus 4:12, YLT)
YHWH speaks: "I am with your mouth" (Exodus 4:15, YLT)
YHWH speaks: "I am with you" (Deuteronomy 31:23, YLT)

Truthfully (John 14:6), the declaration by YHWH God "I AM Who I AM" (Exodus 3:14) is directly referred to by Jesus in "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I AM" (John 8:58) such that Jesus declares Himself to be YHWH God.

 

[Kermos]

Amen! Slight correction would be John 9:5

+

"God Is Light" Is Also In Psalms 27:1

Correction humbly received. I openly apologize for the error.

9:6 vesus 9:5. Hmmmm...

Jesus is identified as Mighty God in Isaiah 9:6.

Jesus is identified as Light thus God in John 9:5.

God bless you, and I thank God that you brought that to my attention.

 

[Kermos]

.....................

Jesus' disciples are light - Matt. 5:14

"You are the light of the world. A city set on a hill cannot be hidden; nor does anyone light a lamp and put it under a basket, but on the lampstand, and it gives light to all who are in the house. Let your light shine before men in such a way that they may see your good works, and glorify your Father who is in heaven" (Matthew 5:14-16).

Hmmmm, Who lit the lamp in the Body of Christ? The answer is Christ.

Christ makes His Assembly conspicuously visible.

Christ is the Light emanating out of His disciples (John 1:4).

Truly, we have a Spiritually accurate linguistic linkage from "Light" in John 1:5 back to "Word" in John 1:1.

Jesus says "While I am in the world, I am the Light of the world" (John 9:5), so we have Jesus being the Light in John 1:4-5 and John 9:5.

God is Light (1 John 1:5), so, clearly, since Jesus is Light, then Jesus is YHWH God!

Immanuel (Matthew 1:23 "God with us"), Jesus, is truly Almighty God, YHWH, with us (Revelation 1:8) (see see the Truth [John 14:6] that God had me compose in post #283 to expose the deception of tigger 2 and Rich R).

 

[Rich R]

You have a different savior than Christians.
Luke 1:47
47 And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior.

That's the verse that proves I'm going to burn in hell because I believe Jesus is son of God, my Lord, and that God raised him from the dead?

 

[Rich R]

Amen! Slight correction would be John 9:5
+
"God Is Light" Is Also In Psalms 27:1

Don't forget:

Matt 5:14,

Ye are the light of the world. A city that is set on an hill cannot be hid.
​

The Jews to whom Jesus spoke these words are also God?