So on another thread about OSAS a discussion has been raging about John 6. Is Jesus speaking literally when he says "Amen Amen I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the son of man and drink his blood you do not have life within you. Whoever feeds upon my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life and I will raise him up on the last day".
Now this is kind of thought experiment. For this discussion we're going to assume Jesus was not speaking literally. With that in mind the experiment is:
What specific words do you think Jesus would have used if he was speaking literally?
Please don't use the l, Jesus would never say such a thing, argument as that's lazy both intellectually and theologically. Please be specific in your replies. Thank you in advance and I'm looking forward to the responses
Another point is that for 1500 years the only Christian church in existence was teaching that Jesus was present in the Eucharist. We'll put aside for a moment that Paul said, the person that eats and drinks without discerning the body of the Lord is eat and drinking judgment on themselves .
The church fathers some of them being disciples of the apostles defended the church against all sorts of heresies. In doing so they reaffirmed the real presence of Jesus in the Eucharist that lasted for 1500 years. Example below. Notice the year.
Justin Martyr
“For not as common bread nor common drink do we receive these; but since Jesus Christ our Savior was made incarnate by the word of God and had both flesh and blood for our salvation, so too, as we have been taught, the food which has been made into the Eucharist by the Eucharistic prayer set down by him, and by the change of which our blood and flesh is nurtured, is both the flesh and the blood of that incarnated Jesus” (First Apology 66 [A.D. 151]).