ScottA
Well-Known Member
In John 1 Jesus is baptized by John the Baptist. In John 2 however, it shows Jesus attending the wedding at Galilie with his followers apparently. where he makes all that wine form water. He also says that His time has not yet come in response to His mother, but apparently he had some disciples with Him already, meaning His ministry was underway. But in Matthew 4 after Jesus was baptized it says He went into the wilderness to be tempted 40 days before commencing His ministry. So which is it? Where did Jesus go after being baptized by John the Baptist?
Seeing things like this is really starting to scare me.
The words are spiritually discerned.
There may very well have been some human error in the recording of the gospels--but not in the spirit.
"Forty days" in biblical terms is considered a lifetime--a lifetime in this "wilderness" called earth. Thus, the passage of forty days is to be understood as Jesus being tempted throughout His whole lifetime.
Which leaves two scenarios that one can believe...neither of which can be chronologized and recorded in the way one might assume. Time is an illusion. The forty days means nothing worldly, nor does the one day, or the next. John recorded it perfectly, as did Matthew...as that was the illusion laid out before each of them. Is it so hard to believe that the timeless events of God, best described as "in the twinkling of an eye" might be perceived differently, in the "image" cast into the creation of every man?
John blinked. Matthew didn't. But then they both witnessed Jesus' temptation for the last three years of His lifetime.
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