Lets take a look at SEs list of verses, shall we?(SealedEternal;47271523)
Matthew 19:3-6 Some Pharisees came to Jesus, testing Him and asking, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any reason at all?"
Firstly, this rendering is somewhat lacking.Their question doesnt casually ask Him if a man can divorce for any reason, thus making it sound like His response means no man can divorce for any reason, but instead they are asking HIm if they can divorce for the broad range of reasons they had been divorcing over that they claim Moses commanded of them.
And He answered and said, "Have you not read that He who created them from the beginning MADE THEM MALE AND FEMALE,and said, 'FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND BE JOINED TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'?"
And ?This is supposedly to mean that 'one flesh' is some unbreakable bond, I suppose...maybe that is why it is highlighted ?*IF* that were the case, then what does that say about Moses and his allowing divorce and remarriage ?Some godly prophet, ehThe ONLY woman ever literally made of her husbands own flesh was Eve.Eve was a foreshadow of what wives should be...as their husbands own flesh.What mans flesh leaves him and betrays him ? And if it does, is he not permitted to cut it off ?Paul conclusively proves that 'one flesh' is sex in 1 cor 6:16...not some mystical, unbreakable bond.Within marriage it is where the God created it to be.Outside marriage it is fornication and sin.
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What is ''one flesh'' and what is it that God joins together
So they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate."
And?LET no man separate.Nothing about Christs words say that man 'CANNOT' separate.The word there is Chorizo (put asunder/separate).Paul shows us conclusively that man CAN CHORIZO in 1 Corinthians 7 and even says to let it be so himself.Hardly sounds like a 'CANNOT' situation to me.
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"Let not man Put Asunder" vs "let the unbeliever depart"
7-12 They *said to Him, "Why then did Moses command to GIVE HER A CERTIFICATE OF DIVORCE AND SEND her AWAY?" He *said to them, "Because of your hardness of heart Moses permitted you to divorce your wives; but from the beginning it has not been this way."And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery." The disciples *said to Him, "If the relationship of the man with his wife is like this, it is better not to marry." But He said to them, "Not all men can accept this statement, but only those to whom it has been given."For there are eunuchs who were born that way from their mother's womb; and there are eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men; and there are also eunuchs who made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. He who is able to accept this, let him accept it."
Notice what I said before is accurate.They had twisted Moses allowing them to divorce frivolously into a 'commandment' to do so.THAT was their error.Instead of understanding that Deut 24:1-4 WASNT a permission to divorce, but instead was a REGULATION meant to STOP these divorces by forcing the man to give her a writ and making him understand that once remarried she can NEVER be his wife again.The Jews even managed to pervert this writ of divorce thing by throwing out a wife and refusing to give her the writ so technically she was still married and could not remarry.As for the eunuch thing, even Paul shows that it is better if a man does not marry and has the gift of continence. It IS better if a man doesnt have to marry and can devote his entire day to the Lords work.This is no evidence against remarriage.
Mark 10: 6-12 "But from the beginning of creation, God MADE THEM MALE AND FEMALE. "FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH; so they are no longer two, but one flesh. "What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate." In the house the disciples began questioning Him about this again. And He *said to them, "Whoever divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her; and if she herself divorces her husband and marries another man, she is committing adultery."
The one flesh and separating issues were covered.Here are the links again
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"Let not man Put Asunder" vs "let the unbeliever depart"READERS SEE->Click->>>
What is ''one flesh'' and what is it that God joins together
Luke 16:18 "Everyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and he who marries one who is divorced from a husband commits adultery.”
This one is no different than the 'no sign' passages.One says No sign will be given in an absolute manner, the other shows no sign EXCEPT the sign of Jonah.Some are unable to harmonize these so they pretend like the Jews were asking for some OTHER sign and that was what Jesus was saying wouldnt be given, but the fact is that the passages say clearly what they were asking for ..a sign from heaven.In Marks account NO sign will be givenIn Matthews NO sign EXCEPT the sign of Jonah is stated.the passage above simply does not contain the exception that Christ gives in Matthew 5 and 19.As a side note, SE continually complains about people using the two exception clauses, but then he presents verses like the above.Apparently we are not permitted, in his view, to present any counter evidence
Genesis 2:22-24 The LORD God fashioned into a woman the rib which He had taken from the man, and brought her to the man. The man said, "This is now bone of my bones, And flesh of my flesh; She shall be called Woman, Because she was taken out of Man." For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh.
Great, I agree.And 'one flesh' is consummation of the marriage....ie 'sex'.
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What is ''one flesh'' and what is it that God joins together
Matthew 5:31-33"It was said, 'WHOEVER SENDS HIS WIFE AWAY, LET HIM GIVE HER A CERTIFICATE OF DIVORCE';but I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except for the reason of unchastity, makes her commit adultery; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery."Again, you have heard that the ancients were told, 'YOU SHALL NOT MAKE FALSE VOWS, BUT SHALL FULFILL YOUR VOWS TO THE LORD.'
Funny that SE doesnt highlight the 'EXCEPT for her unchasity' part there, isnt it ?Secondly, notice how he has highlighted the part about making false vows?See, he seemingly presumes that if you end up divorced that your vows were given falsely to begin with.But see, what apparently hasnt been taken into account here is Numbers 30 that shows that Vows CAN be made that ARE absolutely sincere, and it is possible for someone else to cause those vows to be taken out of the way and forgiven by God.Im guessing that even in the case of Numbers 30 presented in the following link that SE may tell this woman to fulfill her vows even when God has forgiven her for not doing so
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Are vows always ''unbreakableAs I said, there is always more to the story than these folks want to tell.
1 Corinthians 7:10-13 But to the married I give instructions, not I, but the Lord, that the wife should not leave her husband (but if she does leave, she must remain unmarried, or else be reconciled to her husband), and that the husband should not divorce his wife. But to the rest I say, not the Lord, that if any brother has a wife who is an unbeliever, and she consents to live with him, he must not divorce her. And a woman who has an unbelieving husband, and he consents to live with her, she must not send her husband away.
What David isnt pointing out is that this is speaking to two different groups.See what he apparently 'forgot' to highlight in that passage ?"But to the rest I say"To most of us english speaking peoples 'the rest' is typically in contrast to the previous item."you 3 stand over here...THE REST of you go over there"Two entirely different set of instructions to two different groups.To the EQUALLY yoked there is commandment to return to the marriage because BOTH should be willing to listen and obey Gods instruction.To THE REST whom are UNequally yoked with a nonbeliever there is no commandment given by the Lord (by Pauls own words) and to these concession is given that wasnt given to the previous group.This is because we cannot control unbelievers or expect them to obey Gods words. Therefore to these they are not in bondage to that marriage if it ends.
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"Remain Unmarried or reconcile” vs "not in bondage"
I Corinthians 7:39 A wife is bound as long as her husband lives; but if her husband is dead, she is free to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord.Romans 7:2-3 For the married woman is bound by law to her husband while he is living; but if her husband dies, she is released from the law concerning the husband. So then, if while her husband is living she is joined to another man, she shall be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from the law, so that she is not an adulteress though she is joined to another man.
These two are probably the ONLY two verses that actually say what these folks claim without their being distorted into something they arent.The problem is that, again, they do not give the entire story.Firstly this 'law' doesnt exist anywhere in the written word.I spent quite a long time trying to track down this 'law' that says the wife is bound to the husband until his death and it simply doesnt seem to exist in the written law at all.So we conclude that either scripture is lying about it....or....or that it is an unspoken law that was set into motion with the very first couple in the garden.Perfect place to get the ground rules down, no?Jump forward a few hundred years with the newly liberated Hebrew people following Moses around in the desert.This man Moses was called by God to lead Israel out of Egypt and to teach them His law before they would go into the promise land.What we find peculiar here is that supposedly Moses took it upon himself to trash this 'law' of marriage given by God by actually allowing men put away their wives.And not only that, Moses literally writes down law detailing out HOW to do it !And then to top it off, Moses shows that the woman can go and remarry and once she does she can NEVER return to her former husband.This man Moses sounds to be somewhat of a false prophet *IF* this 'law' of marriage is absolute as some proclaim.Does God cater His law TO suit the sins of man ?Did Moses actually GIVE permission to divorce ?The answer is no...Moses DIDNT give anyone permission to divorce in Deut 24:1-4.The passage isnt permitting anything. It is laying out regulations to try to exptirpate these divorces for 'some uncleaness' which we have shown is for no valid reasoning at all.
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Deuteronomy 24:1-4 cannot be about sexual sinREADERS SEE->Click->>>
Moses...the biggest sinner and lawbreaker of all timeIn conclusion, the point is that ANYONE can push out a few verses and make some claims.If anyone is interested in seeing this put into action I challenge you to run out and find your friendly neighborhood HyperCalvinist.The supporting passages they can throw your way to prove their views can blow the doors off of SE's passages here that are very easily harmonized.The HyperCalvinists argument is so overwhelming tho, that I do suggest that you take much care in looking that doctrine over...only do so if you are grounded in Gods word because it can be convincing since there is very little to combat it with in scripture.It takes more than parroting off 9 verses to understand Gods WHOLE word