what is sin?No, that's not it.
Im saying that because """"Christ has redeemed us from the Curse of the Law""""".....the born again Christian is:
= "not under the Law, but Under Grace".
Now...WHERE.....where is "under Grace".= '"not under the Law"..... located?
1.) IN Christ
2.) One with God
3.) In the Kingdom of God.
See those 3?
There is no Moses Law or Commandments there, and there is no sin found there, and all the born again exit there, for eternity....already.
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Willful rebellion against God's righteousness, in thought or deed or speech.
and how exactly does one rebel against God's righteousness?
where does one draw the line of rebellion by thought, word or deed?
God wouldn't leave that up to any and all to define for themselves.
surely the Bible defines sin somewhere so there is no misunderstanding.
By being under the dominion of the Law that defines your carnality as sin, and you as a sinner, which is a curse.
Christ came to undo that "curse".
1.) "Christ has redeemed us from the curse of the Law"
How?
2.) "Christ is the END OF THE LAW......for Righteousness for/to everyone who BELIEVES"
This.
3.) FAITH is counted as Righteousness".
4.) Justification by FAITH...without works or the deeds of the Law.
so since 1 John 3:4 is the only clearly defined definition of sin in the Bible (that I know of), it appears that sin is the breaking of the Commandments of God.
so now that we've arrived here, why doesn't God hold it against us anymore if we break His Commandments?
and why did He inspire John to clarify that so near to the end of the Bible, so near to the end of the New Testament?
if Jesus made the Commandments obsolete in the gospels, why would there be any need for clarification of sin so many books later, and at a much later date than Jesus' physical life upon the earth?
There was no 10 commandments or Moses Law, in Heaven when "iniquity/sin was found in Lucifer"
There was no Moses Law or 10 Commandments in the Garden of Eden, when Adam rebelled (iniquity/sin)
Because """"the Law and Commandments came by Moses, but Grace and Truth came by Jesus The Christ."""
Christ's Cross has delivered the Born again from the Law and the Commandments, so that they can't "curse" you anymore, by declaring you to be a sinner, sinning. They have no more power to do it.
"Christ has redeemed the born again from the CURSE of the LAW"
"the born again are not under the Law, but UNDER GRACE"
2 Corinthians 5:19
Read 1 John 3:9
That is the Born again Christian.
They were always obsolete with regards to being able to give you Righteousness.
See, the Law and Commandments... DEMAND Righteousness from you, and you have none.
That is the "curse of the Law".
God came as Christ on the Cross, as One of us, to save all of us FROM THAT CURSE, by providing to Us = SALVATION on the Cross, who is our sin bearer and our deliverance from the dominion of the Law and Commandments., that formally defined us as sinning sinners.
Now , being born again, we are "made righteous"......Heirs of God. "Saints"/
obviously there was.
just because the Bible doesn't specifically speak about that, doesn't make a very good case that it didn't exist - nor that God didn't have the same opinions of right and wrong at that time.
the Commandments define God's nature. breaking them is going against that nature.
as He is eternal, His nature is eternal and has always existed as He has always existed and always will.
identically, His laws are eternal just as He is eternal.
Well,
The Law and Commandments are made for Sinners, not for God.
There is no Moses law or 10 Commandments in the Kingdom of God..
God actually wrote them, to show us ourselves, ....a sort of MIRROR of God's Holiness, as compared to our unholiness., so that we could see ourselves as compared to GOD.
They were given to bring us the Cross of Christ. That is their purpose.
Galatians 3:24-25
24"" In fact, the Law was to be our teacher until Christ came. Then we could have faith and be acceptable to God.
25 But once a person has given God their faith, (faith is counted as righteousness) there is no more need to have the Law as a teacher.""
1 John 3:9 doesn't contradict 1 John 3:4 in the least.
3:4 defines sin as the breaking of the Commandments of God.
your claim is that Christians are not capable of breaking the Commandments of God while most professed Christians break them every day.
that means they sin every day according to God's Word.
that contradicts what you are teaching here.
ive not made that claim.
i said that the law and commandments can't give you rightesness.
i said that the law and commandments are given to lead us to the Cross of Christ
I said that the law and commandments are a "CURSE" because their dominion definee you as a sinner, until the Cross of Christ redefines you as "made righteous". once you are Born Again.
"Jesus said you must be born.....again"
There is no law of Moses or 10 Commandments in Heaven.
This means there are none of those in "eternity".
But down here, they are still defining sin and sinners.. until the Cross of Christ has redefined the BELIEVER, as "made righteous"./
And if you are not born again, then you are under the law/commandments, and THEY define you as a sinning sinner.
However//..Once you are born again,.....
= "you are NOT under the Law.......you are UNDER Grace"
I didnt say it contradicted anything.
I just asked you to read 1 John 3:9
Just remember this, Reader.
The Law and Commandments, define you as a sinner, which Leads you to the Cross so that Jesus can pay for all your sin.
And that being done for you, is why you will go to heaven, or not.
Good question! Before I was born again through His Spirit in me, I had no desire not to sin. Before being made spiritually alive in Christ I was dead (spiritually; mind, will) in trespasses and sins. In that condition I was in bondage to sin and death that comes through sin. If Christ by His Gospel and power of His Spirit had not made me free from bondage to sin, and death I would still be bound by both. But since Christ defeated sin and death by His cross and resurrection I now have the desire to choose not to sin because I believe Him. It is in this way that Christ has set all who are of faith in Him free from sin. That does not mean we will never again choose to sin, but it does mean that when we sin, we have an Advocate (Christ) to stand before the Father, and when we confess our sin and repent before God our sin is forgiven.
your second statement here is relying on the first statement being some proven, undebatable fact.
did you want to make an attempt to prove that first statement with scripture or something to bolster your credibility?
because they're both incorrect.
If Christ died for an individual they aren't under the law, they are dead to the law by the body of Christ, meaning His Sacrifical death for them Rom 7:4
4 Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God.
This is before they are born again, yet because of it they shall be born again for sure
It is a proven undeniable fact.
The Law and The commandments, are given down here, where sinners need them.
Is God a sinner?
Is heaven a place where sin exists?
Maybe your God is a sinner.
Mine is "RIghteousness " whose name is "HOLY".
So, in that CASE...its undeniable that GOD and CHRIST and the ANGLES and the Host of HEAVEN do not need the "law and commandments", as there is no REASON for them to exist where SIN does not exist.
Even common sense clarifies this for those who have any.
Simple Logic, teaches that The Law came by Moses, who was Adamic, and he gave it to the world of Adamic fallen people.
Is God Adamic?
Is Heaven filled with sin?
So, you sometimes have to think, vs, just "looking to disagreed", MSnOR4h.
There is No Moses Law or 10 Commandments, in HEAVEN, so, that means there is none of this IN CHRIST< or in the KOG, and all the born again exit there.
"Dead to the Law".... = no more under the dominion of the Law. No more under the CURSE of the Law.
And this has more meaning to a religious Jew then it will have to a gentile and the reason is... Religious Jews (Hebrews)... believe they are married to the LAW OF MOSES..
SO, that is one of the reasons that Paul uses "marriage and death" terminology, regarding The Law and freedom from the Law., as a religious Jew needs this special understanding, regarding....>"if her husband is dead she is no longer under the law to Him, and is free to marry another".
Religious Jews are so Law of Moses obsessed that they literally believe that if they turn to Messiah, they are committing adultery against the Law of Moses that they consider their "husband".
So, Paul is teaching that through the body of Yeshua, they are free from the Law to Marry another......or in other words find God, through Christ.
= Yeshua is Your Messiah
If you read Hebrews 6 and 10 and Acts 28:28, you'll find Law obsessed Hebrews rejecting all this, "willfully".
