archierieus
New Member
- May 5, 2008
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(kriss;57648)
Practice what you preach I can and have provided nothing but scripture all you keep saying is you are right without a single scripture to back your claim and mans words
You have quoted Scriptures, however they most certanly do not support your position statement, that the Antichrist is Satan. You have taken a prophecy which pertains to the king of Tyre, some portions of which also refer to Satan. You have attempted to portray Satan as the king of Tyre!! And, you assert that since the English word 'man,' translated from the Hebrew, occurs in one verse of that dual application prophecy, then Satan must be a man!!!! Please do provide exegetical support and citations of competent authorities in support of your assertion.You go on, however, claiming that since the English word 'man' occurs in one verse of the Ezekiel prophecy, THEREFORE Paul's reference to the 'man of sin,' written in koine Greek by a different author, different time period, different language, etc., corresponds with the occurrence of the English word 'man' in the verse in Ezekiel.Do you seriously call that exegesis? Credible work product? But, if so, let's see some peer review and documentation, citations of credible authority. Looking forward to that. Incidentally, that would NOT be commentaries or homiletic compendiums. A good starting point, readily accessible, could be NIDOTTE (New International Dictionary of Old Testament Theology and Exegesis, e. Wm. van Gemeren) or Koehler-Baumgartner's Hebrew and Aramaic Lexicon. What do you find there?Dave
Practice what you preach I can and have provided nothing but scripture all you keep saying is you are right without a single scripture to back your claim and mans words
You have quoted Scriptures, however they most certanly do not support your position statement, that the Antichrist is Satan. You have taken a prophecy which pertains to the king of Tyre, some portions of which also refer to Satan. You have attempted to portray Satan as the king of Tyre!! And, you assert that since the English word 'man,' translated from the Hebrew, occurs in one verse of that dual application prophecy, then Satan must be a man!!!! Please do provide exegetical support and citations of competent authorities in support of your assertion.You go on, however, claiming that since the English word 'man' occurs in one verse of the Ezekiel prophecy, THEREFORE Paul's reference to the 'man of sin,' written in koine Greek by a different author, different time period, different language, etc., corresponds with the occurrence of the English word 'man' in the verse in Ezekiel.Do you seriously call that exegesis? Credible work product? But, if so, let's see some peer review and documentation, citations of credible authority. Looking forward to that. Incidentally, that would NOT be commentaries or homiletic compendiums. A good starting point, readily accessible, could be NIDOTTE (New International Dictionary of Old Testament Theology and Exegesis, e. Wm. van Gemeren) or Koehler-Baumgartner's Hebrew and Aramaic Lexicon. What do you find there?Dave