What in this post gives a Scriptural refutation of my assertion? Can you help me? I'm not seeing it.Marks,
First, thank you for the pleasant dialouge. And I think we have come to the crux of our difference here.
The Church had been bapising people since before 1 letter of the NT was penned.
She has documented evidence that what she says of baptism now, is what she has said from the beginning.
For 2000 years she has understood that to be born again (by water and Spirit) one must receive the sacrament of baptism. And that this is specifically what Jesus is referring to when HE says we must be born of water and Spirit.
All the apostolic churhes teach this. All the bishops in communion with Alexandria. The bishops in communion with Constantinople. The bishops in communion with Rome.
Not one 2000 year old Christian community teach otherwise.
Why do you think your interpretation of our scriptures should be anything else but the teaching of men?
Peace!
All I can find here is, "you are wrong, and everybody who is anybody knows you are wrong."
How am I wrong?
The Bible says . . . there is One Baptism.
The Bible says . . . we are baptized into Christ.
OK. Millions of people say this is not what it means. Yet it remains clear as day to me. There is one baptism, being baptized into Christ.
There have been a number of baptisms in the past, now there is one.
Straight from the Bible. Not my interpretation. Straight from the Word of God.
There is one baptism. We are baptized into Christ. Why do you need anything else?
Let me ask you . . . if you are not baptized into Christ until you are baptized into water, what happens when you come to faith? When you believe? You are not baptized into Christ, having not been baptized into water, so then, what does happen?
When I look at it this way, it really makes no sense to me at all. When I believed, I was baptized into Christ, and was born again.
Are you saying those who believe are not born again until they are water baptized?
Much love!