Praise be to the God of Jesus Christ!

[Richard_oti]

Why the mixture of Hebrew and English?

I used to use it to a much greater extent, but I was also amoung vastly different groups of people. I try to limit my use of it here. I actually have to stop and think at times to write such as "Deuteronomy", for I think "Devarim". If I use some software to search for something in a translation, more oft than not, I type in transliterated Hebrew and wonder why there were no results found. Then I look at what I typed and feel stupid, but that is the manner in which I think to a large degree. Besides, if I write haRuakh haQodesh, at least I am not writing "Holy Ghost". <grin> It is something that I have done for a long long time now, it is almost instinctual. BTW: I dislike the word / title "God", I will always place it within quotation marks and prefer to use 'Elohim or YHVH. You will also notice, that in quoting from an e-source, I almost invariably change LORD and Jehovah to YHVH. Though occasionally one slips through.

Further, the more you encounter as much, the more familiar you yourself shall become with it. Which, may serve to your benefit, who knows. Also, if I supply the English, you shall rely upon that, and not learn or remember it.

I know this may come as a shock,

OHHHHHHHHHHH I am soooooooooooooooo shocked!!! My world is collapsing, the sky is falling <hearty chuckle>.

Ah, that would be a "no", no shock here.

but Jesus is ACTUALLY God's only-begotten (born, created, brought to life) son,
The other sons, and all else, were created by him and THROUGH him.

Indeed. Hence my initial reply to you in response as to whom the 'Elohim of Jesus is:

"The same who brought forth Light as the first of his works of old, from before the foundation of the earth."


Now my next question to you ... Nevermind, I can't decide what or which question to ask, thus you may get two questions:

When and how did the prototokos (the firstborn of all creation ; Col 1:15) come to be?

What or Who was the "Light" brought into being by the "Word" of YHVH?

IMO: John knew, which is why he loosely patterned his opening after the pattern of Bere'shit 1 (Genesis) and identified the "Word" as the "Light".


Pro 8:22 YHVH brought me forth in the beginning of his way, Before his works of old.
...

Pro 8:30 Then I was by him, as a master workman; And I was daily his delight, Rejoicing always before him, 31 Rejoicing in his habitable earth; And my delight was with the sons of men.

 

[Richard_oti]

Agree, Richard?

What?! You attempt to shock me with this obvious heresy and now you expect me to agree with a hairy-tic? In public no less? You want me to publicly acknowledge such a thing? To confess before men?

You must be crazier than "I am". Hey, "I am" just quoting the blind man from John 9:9.

Yes, I agree. I am just curious to hear a little bit more from you.

 

[pia]

Thanks, Pia- and it was referring to you, too!
And, regardless of how the word began, it DOES mean "the Supreme Being"!
It's tragilarious how Churchianity uses it as 'the Supreme Beings'!

Yeah that one is a pickle alright

 

[theQuestion]

I used to use it to a much greater extent, but I was also amoung vastly different groups of people. I try to limit my use of it here. I actually have to stop and think at times to write such as "Deuteronomy", for I think "Devarim". If I use some software to search for something in a translation, more oft than not, I type in transliterated Hebrew and wonder why there were no results found. Then I look at what I typed and feel stupid, but that is the manner in which I think to a large degree. Besides, if I write haRuakh haQodesh, at least I am not writing "Holy Ghost". <grin> It is something that I have done for a long long time now, it is almost instinctual. BTW: I dislike the word / title "God", I will always place it within quotation marks and prefer to use 'Elohim or YHVH. You will also notice, that in quoting from an e-source, I almost invariably change LORD and Jehovah to YHVH. Though occasionally one slips through.

Further, the more you encounter as much, the more familiar you yourself shall become with it. Which, may serve to your benefit, who knows. Also, if I supply the English, you shall rely upon that, and not learn or remember it.




OHHHHHHHHHHH I am soooooooooooooooo shocked!!! My world is collapsing, the sky is falling <hearty chuckle>.

Ah, that would be a "no", no shock here.




Indeed. Hence my initial reply to you in response as to whom the 'Elohim of Jesus is:

"The same who brought forth Light as the first of his works of old, from before the foundation of the earth."


Now my next question to you ... Nevermind, I can't decide what or which question to ask, thus you may get two questions:

When and how did the prototokos (the firstborn of all creation ; Col 1:15) come to be?

What or Who was the "Light" brought into being by the "Word" of YHVH?

IMO: John knew, which is why he loosely patterned his opening after the pattern of Bere'shit 1 (Genesis) and identified the "Word" as the "Light".


Pro 8:22 YHVH brought me forth in the beginning of his way, Before his works of old.
...

Pro 8:30 Then I was by him, as a master workman; And I was daily his delight, Rejoicing always before him, 31 Rejoicing in his habitable earth; And my delight was with the sons of men.

Cool!
But REMEMBER, language is for COMMUNICATION- but if you use another language too often, no one will understand what you say.
Such as if I refer to the Wisdom of Schlomo rather than Solomon!

 

[bbyrd009]

Yeah that one is a pickle alright

it is a way to express the unknowability of God for humans, imo.

 

[bbyrd009]

Cool!
But REMEMBER, language is for COMMUNICATION- but if you use another language too often, no one will understand what you say.
Such as if I refer to the Wisdom of Schlomo rather than Solomon!

the New Testament in Hebrew does not exist, for obvious reasons imo

 

[theQuestion]

the New Testament in Hebrew does not exist, for obvious reasons imo

The originals are believed to have been in Hebrew, since the first Christians WERE Jews.

 

[bbyrd009]

The originals are believed to have been in Hebrew, since the first Christians WERE Jews.

ah; believed by whom?

I used to believe this too, but these people did not speak Hebrew, except privately.
They though in Aramaic and Greek at that point, and were ashamed of Hebrew, etc, as Scripture notes.

Another way to approach the argument is that Jews spoke Aramaic for some reason, what is it?

 

[theQuestion]

ah; believed by whom?
I used to believe this too, but these people did not speak Hebrew, except privately.
They though in Aramaic and Greek at that point, and were ashamed of Hebrew, etc, as Scripture notes.
Another way to approach the argument is that Jews spoke Aramaic for some reason, what is it?

The Jews ashamed of their own language?
Since they lost their Theocracy and were now ruled by Rome, they had to use the language used in their part of the empire.

 

[bbyrd009]

The Jews ashamed of their own language?
Since they lost their Theocracy and were now ruled by Rome, they had to use the language used in their part of the empire.

ya, i was surprised too. Rome did not force language though. A contemporary example might be Native Americans whose nations had been crushed working code in Navajo for the nation-crushers, something like that. Ppl tend to assimilate with the winners, iow. Aramaic was replacing Hebrew in like 800BC or something i think; there is even a Scriptural reference, "please don't speak to us in Hebrew."
Which doesn't search very well, as google wants to tell me how to write "please don't speak to us," in Hebrew lol. Ah, Isaiah 36:11, 2 Kings 18:26

 

[Richard_oti]

The Jews ashamed of their own language?
Since they lost their Theocracy and were now ruled by Rome, they had to use the language used in their part of the empire.

Let's also remember, Greece had been the world's superpower so to speak for a time.

Circa 334 BCE Alexander the Great invades Persia ruled Asia Minor in a series of campaigns that lasted ten years.

Circa 167 BCE, Antiochos Epiphanes IV returned to Jerusalem, outlawed Jewish customs and sparked the Maccabean revolt circa 167-160 BCE.

The Selecid Empire (East) fell to the Roman Republic under Pompey circa 63 BCE. The South / Egypt has allied itself with the Roman Republic for a period of just over 150 years until it was finally annexed by Rome.

The LXX (Septuagint) was written during from 3rd to the 1st century BCE. It had become widespread by the time of Jesus.

The reading of Isaiah 61:1-2 by Jesus as recorded in Luke 4:18-19 is closer to the LXX reading than the MT. In fact, when the OT is quoted within the NT, the majority of those recorded are from the LXX.

 

[theQuestion]

Think Jesus reading from the Septuagint of his day read "LORD" instead of YAHWEH?

 

[Richard_oti]

Think Jesus reading from the Septuagint of his day read "LORD" instead of YAHWEH?

What specifically is written there? And yes, I am aware and have been aware for quite some time of this.