Romans 7: Sin and the Christian

[CadyandZoe]

This will have a lot to do with our differences in our views. So maybe we shouldn't get too caught up in the details over which we may disagree. Otherwise I both enjoy, and profit from our exchanges.

Thanks.

To me this seems to be a clear presentation in Scripture, such as in:

Philippians 3:8-9 KJV
8) Yea doubtless, and I count all things but loss for the excellency of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord: for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and do count them but dung, that I may win Christ,
9) And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:

Paul rejects anything he's done that would be considered righteous, instead desiring to have "the righteousness which is of God by faith".

Paul's writing employs the term "righteous" or "righteousness" with at least two distinct connotations: 1) Morally good, 2) Right with God. In the passage you quoted, I believe Paul is referring to "right with God" rather than "morally good." My friend and Bible teacher coined a word for the second usage: "justifiedness."

The fundamental question in religion is, “How can sinful people be justified before the holy God?” Justification points to the process whereby a person is declared right before God. It doesn’t depend on personal qualities but rather on God’s grace and the work of Jesus Christ.

For the sake of discussion, let's define "righteousness" as the state of perfect moral goodness, and 'justifiedness" as the state of being counted "just" before God. According to Paul, God accounts justification to those who believe in his son Jesus Christ, apart from works of the law. Consequently, we are justified by faith and trust in Jesus, and not based on our own moral goodness. A follower of Jesus is in a state of justifiedness -- being forgiven by God in view of his or her faith in Jesus.

In light of this, allow me to substitute the term "justifiedness" for the term "righteousness" In verse 9 above.

Philippians 3:9
And be found in him, not having mine own justifiedness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the justifiedness which is of God by faith . . ."

We make a mistake if we assume that Paul is speaking about moral goodness or moral perfection here, because the basis of Paul's argument is the "justifiedness" of Abraham, who was declared "justified" even while he failed morally several times. God declared Abraham to be justified in light of his trust and faith in God, not on his perfect moral behavior.

I don't see the merit, myself, of faith. What is it to your credit that you accept what is true?

I'm not suggesting that faith is meritorious. I am suggesting that the doctrine of imputed righteousness is a doctrine of meritorious salvation since it posits that God is "seeing the righteousness of Christ when he looks at me." Surely, Jesus Christ was righteous and without sin and his perfect obedience merited his deliverance from death. But like the father of our faith, Abraham, we are justified on the basis of our faith, not on the basis of a vicarious moral perfection.

Romans 4:3-8 KJV
3) For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.
4) Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt.
5) But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
6) Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
7) Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.
8) Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.

Yes, here again, Paul's talk is about "justifiedness" and so he means to say, "it was accounted unto him for "justifiedness."

I will answer the rest of your post in another response.