first thanks the post, but in 1 Tim. 2:12 it is speaking of a "WIFE" and not all women. how do we know that it is speaking about a wife? it's right in the scriptures. just keep on reading down to, 1Tim 2:15 "Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety".
STOP, and think. the only type of woman who suppose to be having children is a married one .... a "wife". so again here, the term "woman" is G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n. meaning a "wife"
1. a woman.
2. (specially) a wife.
[probably from the base of G1096]
KJV: wife, woman
Root(s): G1096
as said, don't read just 1 verse, but get the whole context so that one can understand fully. by reading unto verse 15 it clearly identifies what kind of woman it is the apostle is speaking of. here it's a "wife"
knowing this, it answeres 1Cor 14:34 "Let your women (wives) keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law".
for if their husband had taught them at home, (1 Tim. 2:12) there would be no need for 1 Cor 14:34, for it is clear, as the apostle said, 1Cor 14:35 And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church".
again it's speaking of "Wives", because the only type of woman who have a "husband" is a married one.... a "WIFE". BINGO.
PICJAG.
You have a thorough grasp and I agree we have to take the whole counsel of Scripture - there is the verse that another had quoted about there not being male nor female, but I don't know if Paul is talking only about married women in Timothy - he could be, but then again he may not be. There are so many interpretations - I just wonder why God would make it so difficult to understand. You see how even Christians on this forum disagree. I just wonder what God had in mind when He gave us these verses - unless it was just because they came through imperfect men that we're getting the Scripture.