Temptation of Jesus

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St. Joseph

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Jesus could not have fallen to temptation and committed a sin. He was God he could not sin.
The reason for his temptations were to prove to the world he was the Messiah. If he had or could sin,then he wouldn't be the one. There was no way he could have failed.
 
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Tommy Cool

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Jesus could not have fallen to temptation and committed a sin. He was God he could not sin.
The reason for his temptations were to prove to the world he was the Messiah. If he had or could sin,then he wouldn't be the one. There was no way he could have failed.
You are drawing conclusions based on your assumptions that are not aligned with the Word.
 

Behold

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Jesus could not have fallen to temptation and committed a sin. He was God he could not sin.

Jesus was the God/Man, who was tempted exactly as we are YET without sin.


KJ21
For we do not have a High Priest who cannot be touched with the feelings of our infirmities, but was in all points tempted as we are, yet without sin.
ASV
For we have not a high priest that cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but one that hath been in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
AMP
For we do not have a High Priest who is unable to sympathize and understand our weaknesses and temptations, but One who has been tempted [knowing exactly how it feels to be human] in every respect as we are, yet without [committing any] sin.
AMPC
For we do not have a High Priest Who is unable to understand and sympathize and have a shared feeling with our weaknesses and infirmities and liability to the assaults of temptation, but One Who has been tempted in every respect as we are, yet without sinning.
BRG
For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
CSB
For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who has been tempted in every way as we are, yet without sin.
CEB
because we don’t have a high priest who can’t sympathize with our weaknesses but instead one who was tempted in every way that we are, except without sin.
CJB
For we do not have a cohen gadol unable to empathize with our weaknesses; since in every respect he was tempted just as we are, the only difference being that he did not sin.
CEV
Jesus understands every weakness of ours, because he was tempted in every way that we are. But he did not sin!
 
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Behold

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I agree with the verse ...but the God/Man is still stretching beyond the Word into human assumption

Jesus said...."if you've seen me, you've seen the Father".

Jesus told them..>"i am from ABOVE, and you are from below".

If you read John 1:10........It shows you that Jesus made the World.

If you read John 20:22, you see Jesus give the Holy Spirit to the Apostles.
Only God can do that.
 
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Tommy Cool

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Jesus said...."if you've seen me, you've seen the Father".

Jesus told them..>"i am from ABOVE, and you are from below".

If you read John 1:10........It shows you that Jesus made the World.

If you read John 20:22, you see Jesus give the Holy Spirit to the Apostles.
Only God can do that.
I was not disputing scripture… I was calling attention to the jumps…. from scripture to assumption that St. Joseph made ….

But since we are here…. and you are trying to uphold the statement that St. Joseph made about Jesus being a God/Man while He was here on earth (before He was glorified)….....That is not substantiated in the Word unless you pull scripture out of context and add your assessment…. And having read several of your posts on this site… and previously on CF and CFS ….I don’t remember you making those assumptions.



Taking a look at the scripture you quoted:

Jhn 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?

To declare that.... that makes Jesus a God/man is not only a stretch you have to add your insight and dismiss multiple other scripture….
Instead of reading what you believe … just read what is written in the context (Jhn 14:7-15) and from what you already know from the Word of God.

God has an image problem because God is Spirit, and a spirit has no form… Jesus Christ came to declare the Father…He always did the Fathers will… He was the living Word.

We also (with the spirit of God within us) “should be” able to say he that hath seen me hath seen the Father….because we are in the Father, and the Father in us (v10)….. That does not make us God/Men.

________________

Jhn 8:23 And he said unto them, Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world.

Although this record branches off into a section of unforgivable sin …this verse does not denote Jesus as a God/Man. It is simply stating the truths we know, of who His father is…

____________________

Jhn 1:10
He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.

This verse does not indicate that Jesus made the world ….Go back to Jhn 1:6 and read it through.

"John 20:22, you see Jesus give the Holy Spirit to the Apostles.
Only God can do that."

That would be true …..UNLESS …..God delegated the responsibility of the Church to Jesus Christ…which He did → Eph 1:22 And hath put all things under his feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the church,

________________

Jhn 20:22 And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost:

That was Jesus instructing His Apostles what to do ….which took place on Pentecost… when the pouring out of the spirit came. It did not happen in verse 20 ….it was not available.

Act 2:2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting.

The words mighty wind can and should be translated heavy breathing.
 

Behold

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I was not disputing scripture… I was calling attention to the jumps…. from scripture to assumption that St. Joseph made ….

But since we are here…. and you are trying to uphold the statement that St. Joseph made about Jesus being a God/Man while He was here on earth (before He was glorified)….....That is not substantiated in the Word unless you pull scripture out of context and add your assessment…


Jesus said..."if you've seen me, you've seen the Father".

Jesus said..>"before Abraham was..... I AM"... .and "I AM" is the name that God gave to Moses from the burning bush.

When Thomas first saw Jesus after Jesus was resurrected (Glorified) Thomas said..."My Lord and my God"..
And Jesus didn't correct him......as why would GOD correct the Truth.

If you read Colossians 1:16, it confirms that Jesus made the world, as John 1:10 teaches.

Genesis 2:7 says that God gave Adam the Spirit and John 20:22 shows The God-Man doing the same thing.

Jesus said. "I and my Father are ONE".
 

Tommy Cool

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Jesus said..."if you've seen me, you've seen the Father".

Jesus said..>"before Abraham was..... I AM"... .and "I AM" is the name that God gave to Moses from the burning bush.

When Thomas first saw Jesus after Jesus was resurrected (Glorified) Thomas said..."My Lord and my God"..
And Jesus didn't correct him......as why would GOD correct the Truth.

If you read Colossians 1:16, it confirms that Jesus made the world, as John 1:10 teaches.

Genesis 2:7 says that God gave Adam the Spirit and John 20:22 shows The God-Man doing the same thing.

Jesus said. "I and my Father are ONE".
Jesus said..."if you've seen me, you've seen the Father".

Sooooo …How does that make Jesus a god/man.
If I did everything my earthly father wanted me to do…. I could say the same thing regarding my dad.



Jesus said..>"before Abraham was..... I AM"... .and "I AM" is the name that God gave to Moses from the burning bush.

He was before Abraham …From Genesis _3:15 to Revelation_22:21 The entire subject is about Jesus Christ.
The phrase egō eimi translated I AM in Jhn 8:58 …occurs many times in the NT and is often translated as “I am He” or some other equivalent like “it is I” a few examples → Mar 13:6, Jhn 13:19, Mat 14:27, Mar 6:50




When Thomas first saw Jesus after Jesus was resurrected (Glorified) Thomas said..."My Lord and my God"..

Jhn 20:28


The Greek text reads "....the lord of me and the God of me"

The Greek language uses the word theos (God, god) with the broader meaning than is customary to today. It was a descriptive title applied to a range of authorities ….including the Roman governor Romans 12:22 and even the devil 2 Corinthians 4:4. It was used with someone with divine authority and was not limited to its absolute sense as a personal name for the supreme deity as we use it today.

With that in mind…. Thomas’s excitement after being in doubt is not a stretch whatsoever.

There is also a figure of speech hendiadys in that verse. Hendiadys means “one by means of two”. One of the two words expresses the fact …the other intensifies it to the superlative degree…. making the statement especially emphatic. In this case the word Lord expresses the fact and the godly intensifies it…”my godly Lord” …could be a viable phrase.


If you read Colossians 1:16, it confirms that Jesus made the world, as John 1:10 teaches.


While KJV is not the best translation for these verses ….you again have isolated a single verse within the context of Colossians-1:12-19. Knowing that all things were delivered unto Jesus by His Father until He turns it back over to God in the end…according to the scripture.

Additionally we are now into the Glorified Christ ….which is different than what this conversation started out at ….which was when He was here on earth… So I am not going to discuss this except to say the all things created by him, and for him: have to do with after Pentecost ….not all as in every single thing.





Genesis 2:7 says that God gave Adam the Spirit and John 20:22 shows The God-Man doing the same thing.


Actually… it doesn’t…………It says man became a living soul (nephesh) they are not the same.

Although I believe Adam did have spirit …which is how he communicated with God. And I believe that when Adam blew it…it was spirit that he lost “…for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die”. (or dying ye shall die) Gen 2:17. That is my belief based upon several scripture, but it is conjecture …it is not specifically declared in the Word….the closest verse declaring this is Gen 1:27 So God created man in his image…. and God is spirit.

We do know physically Adam lived for 900+ years ….and throughout the OT spirit was available upon believers conditionally…. But that changed at Pentecost because of what Jesus Christ accomplished.


Jesus said. "I and my Father are ONE".


It is clear from the context that this is one in purpose not one in the same….even Vines states this as a metaphor…. which he concluded from the context.

Vines ↓
(b) metaphorically, "union" and "concord," e.g., Jhn 10:30; 11:52; 17:11, 21, 22; Rom 12:4, 5; Phl 1:27;



1Co 3:8 "Now he that planteth and he that watereth are one:" And no one is claiming that Paul and Apollos are the same or a split person.

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You have been selective in scripture pulling out of context to promote what you believe… both in this post and the previous one….

What happened to the person who wrote these words to correct and another saint on CF?

“See, people like you always take out of the verse, the part that you want to believe, and you never concern yourself with the Context” ……………………………........#17

I remember read reading that and thinking …. Yay!!! …. My kind of believer….But, you have digressed my brother.
 

Behold

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The Greek text reads "....the lord of me and the God of me"

First of all, you can't read Koine Greek fluently, if at all.
So, to use what you can't actually read, to try to correct the Holy Bible, is the Devil's game.
Want to keep playing it, Tommy?

Next,

You are not reading the Greek.
You are reading someone's translation of that Lexicon, and then you are posting THEIR Translation, as "the greek says'

So, that is a liar's game.
Dont play it on Christian Forums.
 

Tommy Cool

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Correct.

Both God and Christ refer to themselves as "I am".
When God said it …He was saying…. I will be what I will be.

When Jesus said I am …He was declaring to the Pharisees that He was the Son of man (not god/man) and if they did not believe on Him they would die in their sins.
To extend any other conclusion other than what is written is making stuff up to fit your belief.
 

Tommy Cool

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First of all, you can't read Koine Greek fluently, if at all.
So, to use what you can't actually read, to try to correct the Holy Bible, is the Devil's game.
Want to keep playing it, Tommy?

Next,

You are not reading the Greek.
You are reading someone's translation of that Lexicon, and then you are posting THEIR Translation, as "the greek says'

So, that is a liar's game.
Dont play it on Christian Forums.

You know nothing about the research I do….and it doesn’t matter what you think of me.

Thankfully…. I don’t stand approved before you… If I did... it would require me operating on conjecture and assumption to stand approved.

But, as a brother in Christ … I pray that some day your religious blinders will fall off.
 

Behold

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When Jesus said I am …He was declaring to the Pharisees t


Christ said to the Pharisees, "before Abraham was,= I AM".

So, that is Jesus, before Abraham was born. ...= "BEFORE Abraham".

This is Jesus referring to Himself = "pre-incarnate" as John 1.

"The WORD.... was God"..

As confirmed by : 1 Timothy 3:16
 

Nancy

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Jesus said...."if you've seen me, you've seen the Father".

Jesus told them..>"i am from ABOVE, and you are from below".

If you read John 1:10........It shows you that Jesus made the World.

If you read John 20:22, you see Jesus give the Holy Spirit to the Apostles.
Only God can do that.
Not to mention, He forgave sins...
 
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Tommy Cool

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Christ said to the Pharisees, "before Abraham was,= I AM".

So, that is Jesus, before Abraham was born. ...= "BEFORE Abraham".

This is Jesus referring to Himself = "pre-incarnate" as John 1.

"The WORD.... was God"..

As confirmed by : 1 Timothy 3:16

I have yet to find pre-incarnate in the Word of God it appears to be only in in religion which has to make up stuff to fit their beliefs.

And unfortunately …. 1Timothy 3:16 does not confirm your belief.

And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

It would make no difference what this verse states... I would accept and believe whatever was God breathed ... but this verse has clearly been altered.

Why ??? probably because some translators over the years have felt it necessary to insert their belief …and it really irritates me when people try to alter Gods word, which I believe we both hold in the highest esteem.

This verse caught my attention because it read awkwardly …. and didn’t really match up with other scripture.

Here is just a small portion of what I found…. you can use it or disregard it.

The words “he who” in place of God (theos) is supported by the earliest and best uncials … no uncials in the first hand earlier than the 8th or 9th century supports theos (God). All ancient versions read as hos or ho …. meaning “he who” or “he” ….and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the 4th century testifies to it reading theos.

This change arose either accidentally or deliberately. ….



* The Codex Sinaiticus, the oldest complete Greek NT from the 4th century does not have the word "God" (theos) in it

*The Lamsa Bible, an Aramaic text from the 5th century, does not have the word "God" (theos) in it

*St. Jerome's Latin Vulgate from 405AD does not have the word "God" (theos) in it

*The Armenian Bible, translated from the Peshitta Syriac text in 411AD, does not have the word "God" (theos) in it

*The New-English-Translation-NET-Bible does not have the word "God" (theos) in it

*The Coptic text, translated from ancient Egyptian manuscripts from the 4th & 9th centuries, does not have the word "God" (theos)in it

*None of the church fathers before the last third of the fourth century testified that this verse had the word “God” in it.

*The majority of the commentaries agree that the original word was "which" or "who", which was later altered to "God"

*At least half of the critical Greek texts agree that the original word was "which" or "who", which was later altered to "God"

*The original reading was “which”, was later changed by a scribe after the second century to “who”, then later still it was finally changed to “God”.

*The Bullenger Companion Bible details how the corruption of the text happened over time, step by step

*We can see the Facsimile of the Codex Alexandrinus (a Greek uncial text from the 5th century, Alexandria, Egypt) from the British museum that reveals the progressive corruption of the text

----------------------------------------------------------------

American Standard has - He who

Revised Standard has - He

New Living Translation has - Christ ….with a footnote → 3:16b Greek He who;

New English Translation has - He

Christian Standard Bible has - He

New King James Version has - God …with a footnote →Text reads Who

Legacy Standard Bible reads - He who

English Standard Version reads - He
 
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Behold

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I have yet to find pre-incarnate in the Word of God it appears to be only in in religion which has to make up stuff to fit their beliefs.


You also wont find the work. "Duck", "Deer" "Canadian Sunset"..."Marijuana", or " Dinosaur".

So, because these exact words are not in the Bible, does this mean you also "can't find them"?

So, really?
Try putting your thinking glasses on, Tommy.

Let me show you "pre-incarnate" JESUS.


"Iin the beginning was the Word, and the Word was God". "Jesus is the Word made FLESH" (Born of a Virgin)

Jesus said, "i am from ABOVE, and you Tommy, are from Below'"""

That is Heaven (above) and Below (earth)

So, Jesus was not a man, in Heaven, he was Pre-incarnate, as the "Word". Who is "the BREAD of HEAVEN" who "came down".
 

Jack

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I agree with the verse ...but the God/Man is still stretching beyond the Word into human assumption
Jesus isn't your Savior?

Hosea 13
4 You shall know no God but Me; For there is no Savior besides Me.
 
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Jack

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Jesus said...."if you've seen me, you've seen the Father".

Jesus told them..>"i am from ABOVE, and you are from below".

If you read John 1:10........It shows you that Jesus made the World.

If you read John 20:22, you see Jesus give the Holy Spirit to the Apostles.
Only God can do that.
Col 1 By Him all things were created.
 

Behold

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Col 1 By Him all things were created.

The God Man.


Genesis 1....."God spoke.........Let there be".......and Jesus pre-incarnate.....is the WORD of God.""

"God SPOKE"....>"Jesus is the WORD"....

Its the same.....same same.

"Jesus IS....THAT. SPIRIT"......... = Holy Spirit.

"God Breathed into Adam" = "Jesus Breathed on the Apostles and said receive you the HOLY SPIRIT".

A.) Only GOD can give the Holy Spirit, because only GOD....IS the Holy Spirit.

= "God is A Spirit".


That is the "deity of Christ" as "I AM"....

Jesus said....."if you've seen the Father, then you've SEEN ME".


Jesus said..>"I and my Father.....are ONE"
 
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Tommy Cool

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Jesus isn't your Savior?

Hosea 13
4 You shall know no God but Me; For there is no Savior besides Me.
I have been speaking in tongues since my New-Birth Date. Which, as the Bible states is my proof in the senses world that I am saved …born again…… So …. don’t be offended my self-righteous brother ….but I am going to trust Gods Word over your misguided religious doctrine and fallacious discernment.

The verse in Hos 13:4 Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no god but me: for there is no saviour beside me.

Actually God is our savior …but that word yāšaʿ can just as accurately be translated deliverer ….although it is translated saved 149X savior 15X and deliver 14X ..and the context itself is not related to Jesus Christ whatsoever.