The Absolute Equality of Jesus With The Father

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Sad reliance on a trinitarian corrupted translation. From a literal translation of the verse.

Romans 1:20
New Revised Standard Version

20 Ever since the creation of the world his eternal power and divine nature, invisible though they are, have been understood and seen through the things he has made. So they are without excuse;

the English term "Godhead" actually means "the Divine Nature", which is singular. No problem with either translation, as it says the same thing

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Yes, I did say that.

:) Nothing is impossible for God.
"I and the father are one."

Which is clear in the Greek, "εγω και ο πατηρ εν εσμεν", literally, "I and the Father WE are one". The masculine plural, which can hardly mean on and the same person!

 

[Wrangler]

Yes, I did say that.

:) Nothing is impossible for God.
"I and the father are one."

It’s not a question of possible but what is absent from the Bible. The trinity is not in the Bible. The entire Bible is written by monotheist Jews who reject the trinity to this day. Therefore, projecting trinitarian doctrine onto unitarian text is futile.

The idea that this common expression meaning people are on the same page over turns the 1C is preposterous.

 

[Wrangler]

Who's definition?

Refer to your favorite lexicon.

Only trinitarians deny begotten could possibly mean procreation, which is obviously a form of creation.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Therefore, projecting trinitarian doctrine onto unitarian text is futile

John 1:1, itself destroys any idea that the God of the Bible can in any way be Unitarian. Let the Scriptures speak for themselves, without any bias being applied to them.

John then says that “the Word was with God”. Better in the Greek, “καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν”. Here we have “ὁ λόγος” (the Word), Who is the Lord Jesus Christ. We also now have “τὸν θεόν”, literally “the God”, which contextually, as seen from verse 18, is God the Father. John here uses the Greek preposition, “πρὸς”, which shows a distinction between, “ὁ λόγος”, and “τὸν θεόν”, as this preposition has the meaning of, “face to face with”, “in the presence of”. Quite impossible for “ὁ λόγος” and “τὸν θεόν”, being on and the same Person. Here we have the teaching of the “UniPersonal” God of the Bible. This destroys any idea of “Unitarianism”, and shows that, with the Holy Spirit, that the only correct understanding of the Godhead, is Trinitarian.

 

[Amazed@grace]

It’s not a question of possible but what is absent from the Bible. The trinity is not in the Bible. The entire Bible is written by monotheist Jews who reject the trinity to this day. Therefore, projecting trinitarian doctrine onto unitarian text is futile.

The idea that this common expression meaning people are on the same page over turns the 1C is preposterous.

True. The Triune separate person's of God teaching was not of Jesus. But of Theophilus in A.D. 168 and onward. Tertullian too in A.D 220.
Men brought that teaching.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

The Triune separate person's of God teaching was not of Jesus.

The Three Persons are DISTINCT, as per the Greek usage in the NT. Unless you are saying that the NT Greek is faulty?

 

[Wrangler]

John 1:1, itself destroys any idea that the God of the Bible can in any way be Unitarian

Wrong. John 1:1 refers to God. Trinitarians want to suppose it refers to Jesus.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Wrong. John 1:1 refers to God. Trinitarians want to suppose it refers to Jesus.

see #125

 

[Wrangler]

John 1:18 is the summary statement for the Gospel of John.


No one has ever seen God. It is God the only Son, who is close to the Father’s heart, who has made him known.

 

[Wrangler]

see #125

An intelligent mind can rationalize anything. Father and son denote inequality, by definition.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

An intelligent mind can rationalize anything. Father and son denote inequality, by definition.

Prove from the Greek that what I have said is wrong. Nothing about theology but fact

 

[Wrangler]

Prove from the Greek that what I have said is wrong. Nothing about theology but fact

No. I speak English. I am Groot.

See my signature.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

No. I speak English. I am Groot.

See my signature.

Are you just trying to argue your point regardless of the facts? This is a waste of time

 

[Wrangler]

Are you just trying to argue your point regardless of the facts? This is a waste of time

I’ve already totally refuted the claim. I’m not going to do it in multiple languages.

BTW, a rationalization is hardly a fact. The fact is the trinity is not in the Bible, which is monotheist text.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

I’ve already totally refuted the claim. I’m not going to do it in multiple languages.

BTW, a rationalization is hardly a fact. The fact is the trinity is not in the Bible, which is monotheist text.

You don't know what you are talking about. Mostly rubbish

 

[Amazed@grace]

The Three Persons are DISTINCT, as per the Greek usage in the NT. Unless you are saying that the NT Greek is faulty?

I appreciate your sharing of the Greek. :)
I have shared my thoughts on the triune teaching.

 

[Amazed@grace]

No. I speak English. I am Groot.

See my signature.

There you are! LOL! Haven't heard that name in a long time. ;)

 

[Wrangler]

You don't know what you are talking about. Mostly rubbish

I know that my first post in this thread detailing many inequalities has been ignored.

John 3:16. God sent his son. The Son did not send God. See the inequality?

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

I know that my first post in this thread detailing many inequalities has been ignored.

John 3:16. God sent his son. The Son did not send God. See the inequality?

The Son IS Almighty God, as The Father Himself addresses Jesus as God in Hebrews 1:8. The Father also tells the angels to WORSHIP Jesus Christ in verse 6. In verses 10-12, the Father says that Creation is the Work of Jesus Christ. This shows COMPLETE EQUALITY between the Father and Jesus Christ. Simple!