Jesus divides the nations like a shepherd divides the sheep from the goats. He welcomes the sheep into His kingdom based on the fact that they did the right works concerning Jesus' brothers.
Why would the sheep not represent the elect/chosen? They inherit "eternal life" (Matt 25:46) in "the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world" (Matt 25:34). Is that not what the elect/chosen of God will inherit? I believe it is since I believe all who belong to Christ are His sheep and His elect.
The sheep cannot be accounted as the group "Jesus' brothers", because who they are is determined by their actions towards others, not themselves, specifically Jesus' brothers therefore, Jesus' brothers, as referenced in this passage, are not the sheep.
I don't agree with your logic here. If this was the case then why doesn't it say where His brothers were placed? He only said that the people will be separated into two groups, not three.
Also, what will happen to His brothers if they are not part of the sheep? It's particularly talking about "the least of these" of His brothers, to be clear. The most needy among them. Why would Jesus neglect to mention what will happen to them? I don't believe He would. I believe they are among the sheep, but are the "least of these" among them. I don't believe there is any basis for placing them into a separate group entirely.
Jesus Himself said "He that is not with me is against me; and he that gathereth not with me scattereth abroad." (Matthew 12:30). So, from His perspective all people were either with Him or against Him. He only looked at people as being in two groups. Why would Matthew 25:31-46 be any different?
And of course that two gatherings are named.
Yes, only two groups. Not three. You are putting some people into another group, but Jesus did not. He said all people will be gathered before the throne. That would include the least of these His brothers. And then it says all of the people will be separated into two groups. Not three.
These sheep and goats, they are determined righteous or not based on their works. Those who are "in Christ" are specifically not. We are righteous because we've received Christ's righteousness. Personal works of righteousness towards salvation are eschewed by Paul throughout his letters.
I disagree that those who are in Christ aren't there. They are the sheep. Are you forgetting about these passages:
Romans 14:10 But why dost thou judge thy brother? or why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for
we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ. 11 For it is written, As I live, saith the Lord, every knee shall bow to me, and every tongue shall confess to God. 12
So then every one of us shall give account of himself to God.
2 Corinthians 5:9 For
we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things done in his body, according to that he hath done, whether it be good or bad.
How is what Paul said here any different than what is portrayed in Matthew 25:31-46? In each case people are being judged "according to that he hath done, whether it be good or bad".
I believe what you're not understanding here is that Matthew 25:31-46 is not portraying a judgment where salvation is rewarded for works. That is NEVER the case. Is that what you think that passage is about? That can never be true.
Matthew 25:31-46 is clearly about salvation since it indicates that the sheep/righteous inherit "eternal life" at that point (Matt 25:46). So, what gives here? Why does it, on the surface, give the impression that people are being rewarded with salvation and eternal life based on their works? That is because our works reflect our faith. The sheep are not being rewarded specifically for their works, but rather for the faith that their works reflected.
You can read about the relationship between faith and works in James 2 where James said faith without works is dead (James 2:20) and we are not justified by faith alone but rather by faith and works (James 2:24). Why did James say that? Was he contradicting the scriptures that say we are not saved by works (Eph 2:8-9)? No. He said that because true faith will result in the good works that God has prepared for us to do.
The good works don't come before salvation and are not what saves us, they come as a result of salvation, as can be seen in Ephesians 2:8-10. If we truly have faith we will follow Christ and serve Him. If we're not doing anything to obey Him and serve Him, then what kind of faith is that? It's not faith at all. It's dead. That is what is being illustrated in Matthew 25:31-46. It's no different than what Jesus said in John 15 where He said if you are not bearing fruit you will be cut off from the vine (Him). Even the demons believe and shudder. Jesus is looking for people to follow Him, not just believe in Him while doing whatever they want without caring if they serve and obey Him or not.
Yet these are judged righteous based on their works.
If the Church - that is specifically, those who are "In Christ" were part of this gathering, the declaration of righteousness based on works would be wholely out of place. If those "in Christ" were a part of the gathering of the elect, then from where come the sheep?
Again, the sheep are "in Christ". I addressed the rest of this already above.
I take it just as Jesus prophesied, in the normal terminology of the day. "Elect" wouldn't be used of gentile Christians for 30 years or so, when Paul was writing his letters. And we don't take a later usage of the word by someone else to determine what an earlier speaker meant. We should - what I think - go by the normal customary meaning of the language at the time it was said. In other words, the Historical Grammatical Hermeneutic.
And when Jesus spoke of the Chosen, and the Nations, there's not a doubt in my mind what this meant at that time, to those people.
I don't believe it makes any sense to think we should go by whatever they may have thought He was saying at the time. We should go by what He knew regardless of what they may have thought. Do you not believe that they didn't understand some of the things He said at the time and only understood them later? I do.
Take the following, for example:
John 10:14
I am the good shepherd, and know my sheep, and am known of mine. 15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep. 16
And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd.
Do you think they understood at the time that Jesus was talking about Gentile believers when He referred to His "other sheep"? I'm pretty sure they did not. And I feel sure that Jesus knew they would not understand what He was saying at that time. But, He said it, anyway, because He knew they would understand later. Especially considering that the Gentiles being made one body and fellowheirs with the Jews (Ephesians 2:11-3:6) was not meant to be revealed yet at that point.