In 2 Thessalonians, we see a discussion on the "man of lawlessness." The NIV puts it this way...
Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction. 4 He will oppose and will exalt himself over everything that is called God or is worshiped, so that he sets himself up in God’s temple, proclaiming himself to be God.
I thought a difficult section of verses would make for good discussion. In my opinion, this text is not talking about a future "Antichrist" figure to emerge during the "Great Tribulation." First, I think it is important that the context of this passage is considered. Paul is seeking to encourage these Christians by understanding that they have not missed the Second Coming. In my mind, pointing out some mysterious figure that no one will really see coming until he has led the whole world astray would not really be of much comfort to these worried believers.
Moreover, the text is subjunctive in mood, which could either be present or future. Most translators make a number of interpretive decisions on these verses by supplying object and translating that this text is speaking of a future event. It is just as likely that Paul is speaking of a present evil in his day that would bring comfort to these believers that they have not missed the Second Coming. My view is that this "Man of lawlessness" is referring to Satan and how the Gospel has brought to light his previously hidden work in the world. Thus, Paul is saying that they should not worry that they have missed the Second Coming because as long as there is evil in the world, then the one behind all the evil of the world has not yet been dealt with. The end will not happen secretly (sorry Tim LaHaye), but will be a triumphant day when the people of God are delivered and the evil one is exposed once and for all and judged.
What are your thoughts on these difficult verses?
Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction. 4 He will oppose and will exalt himself over everything that is called God or is worshiped, so that he sets himself up in God’s temple, proclaiming himself to be God.
I thought a difficult section of verses would make for good discussion. In my opinion, this text is not talking about a future "Antichrist" figure to emerge during the "Great Tribulation." First, I think it is important that the context of this passage is considered. Paul is seeking to encourage these Christians by understanding that they have not missed the Second Coming. In my mind, pointing out some mysterious figure that no one will really see coming until he has led the whole world astray would not really be of much comfort to these worried believers.
Moreover, the text is subjunctive in mood, which could either be present or future. Most translators make a number of interpretive decisions on these verses by supplying object and translating that this text is speaking of a future event. It is just as likely that Paul is speaking of a present evil in his day that would bring comfort to these believers that they have not missed the Second Coming. My view is that this "Man of lawlessness" is referring to Satan and how the Gospel has brought to light his previously hidden work in the world. Thus, Paul is saying that they should not worry that they have missed the Second Coming because as long as there is evil in the world, then the one behind all the evil of the world has not yet been dealt with. The end will not happen secretly (sorry Tim LaHaye), but will be a triumphant day when the people of God are delivered and the evil one is exposed once and for all and judged.
What are your thoughts on these difficult verses?