continued from
post #2474
Paul tells you the reason why Jesus volunteered to suffer the death penalty, which wasn't the expiation of sin. Jesus was on the cross to allow the Father "to demonstrate his righteousness" during a time of forbearance.
"this is His name by which He will be called, 'YHWH our righteousness.'" (Jeremiah 23:6).
"They will say of Me, ‘Only in YHWH are righteousness and strength.’" (Isaiah 45:24).
GOD IS RIGHTEOUSNESS.
"by His doing you are in Christ Jesus, who became to us wisdom from God, and righteousness and sanctification, and redemption" (1 Corinthians 1:30).
"He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him" (2 Corinthians 5:21).
CHRIST IS THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF GOD.
"As Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of Man be lifted up" (John 3:14)
"I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself" (John 12:32)
THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF GOD WAS PUBLICLY LIFTED UP.
"Christ Jesus whom God displayed publicly" (Romans 3:24-25).
"to demonstrate His righteousness" (Romans 3:25)
The word "demonstrate" comes from ἔνδειξιν (Strong's #1732, a pointing out or indication, a proof,
biblehub.com/greek/1732.htm).
ACCORDING TO PAUL IN ROMANS 3:25, GOD DISPLAYED CHRIST PUBLICLY TO PROVE THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF GOD, BEING CHRIST.
God proved that Christ takes away the sin of the world.
You reject Christ wipes away your sin, so you remain a slave of sin (John 8:34, John 8:44).
All disciples of Christ are slaves of righteousness (Romans 6:18).
In effect, much of your writing indicates that you despise the Righteousness of God, and the Righteousness of God is the Master of us slaves of Righteousness, yet you explicitly exclude yourself from the domain of the slaves of Righteousness.
And if Jesus' death on the cross paid for our sins, then the time of forbearance is over. But it isn't over. The time of forbearance continues. Romans 2:4
Paul's writing of "do you think lightly of the riches of His kindness and tolerance and patience, not knowing that the kindness of God leads you to repentance" (Romans 2:4) does not equate to your writing of "if Jesus' death on the cross paid for our sins, then the time of forbearance is over".
In fact, nothing in the Bible substantiates your writing, so that makes your writing not the Word of God.
Truly, the Word of God paid for the sins of the children of God thus His patience (forbearance) extends "until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled" (Luke 21:24).
Both Peter and John tell us that Jesus was the lamb that came to take away the sins of the world. Jesus not only forgives sins, he takes them away entirely.
You have repeatedly said that Jesus does not take away sins.
Over and over you emphatically conveyed that Christ does not wipe away sins such as earlier in your self-same post with "God wasn't absolving people of guilt".
Your doctrine holds that two mutually exclusive things are true simultaneously.
By definition logically and linguistically, two mutually exclusive premises can not be true simultaneously.
Your doctrine, the thoughts of your heart, our confusion; on the other hand, "God is not a God of confusion but of peace" (1 Corinthians 14:33).
Notice the contra-juxtaposition of peace against confusion/war.
You go around saying peace, peace, but there is no peace (Jeremiah 6:14) for you currently with the Lord Jesus based on the treasure of your heart (Matthew 15:18).
Since you are not at peace with the Word of God, then you are at war with the Lord (Matthew 12:30).
What does it mean to take the sins away? First of all, taking the sins away means that our sins will no longer be remembered. Ezekiel 18:21-23 Hebrews 8:12 This is represented symbolically in the book of Revelation as believers wearing white robes. Secondly, not only does Jesus forgive sins, he has made it possible for God to totally remove sin from our life experience. One day we will be freed from this body of death. Romans 7:24-25
The phrase "take away the sin" means exactly "the sin is separated from the person".
The phrase "take away the sin" means not "God leaves sin in a person yet God ignores sin in a person while God removes sin from a person".
Your writing cumulatively arrives at "God leaves sin in a person yet God ignores sin in a person while God removes sin from a person".
You are so very confused!
Truly, God forgives sin, and God takes away sin.
We discussed this. I had no idea that you didn't understand the concept of ransom and redemption.
You failed to understand the meaning of "ransom" and "redemption", so God caused me to present Exodus 21:29-31 to show you that God conveys the definition of these words in the Holy Writ, and here are the definitions:
"Ransom" is defined as "demand for payment to recover ownership".
"Redemption" is defined as "payment for recovery of unencumbered ownership".
A redeemer is the same thing as a purchaser.
Lord Christ redeems us disciples; therefore; the Christ bought the ownership of us disciples.
Since you deny that Christ is Purchaser/Redeemer, then you remain in your sin (John 8:24).
Paul's point depends on the customary way that prisoners and slaves were given freedom. In order to gain freedom for the prisoner or slave, one pays a ransom payment to the jailer or the slave owner. Once the payment is made, the prisoner or slave is set free.
First, bail is posted for release of a prisoner, not a ransom. Since you are so very confused about "slave of sin" and "slave of righteousness", then I'll just drop the "prisoner" point here.
Second, considering a slave-trader selling a slave to a non-slave-trader, when the non-slave-trader redeems (pays for/buys/purchases/makes payment for) the slave, then ownership of the slave transfers from the slave-trader to the non-slave-trader.
Jesus came to set the prisoners free. Isaiah 61:1, Luke 4:18 How does he set them free? First, he gives sight to the blind.
And what imprisons them? Sin. John 8:34 The purchase price was to free us from sin. Romans 6:6 Ransom = freedom.
See, you don't understand "ransom" because the definition of "ransom" does not equal "freedom" as has been previously presented to you, yet you practice the lawlessness of illegal word redefinition with "Ransom = freedom" (Matthew 7:23)
When you wrote "Ransom = freedom", then you lied because:
- "freedom" is defined as "unhindered liberty".
- "ransom" is defined as "demand for payment to recover ownership".
- "freedom" is not defined as "ransom".
"The Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many" says Lord Jesus Christ (Matthew 20:28).
Christ's Blood shed on the cross is payment for the ransom that leads to Christ's disciples being bought unto slaves of Righteousness; moreover, the payment for the ransom is redemption of Christ's disciples.
We slaves of Righteousness are set free from the punishment for sin.
When you wrote "Jesus didn't buy disciples", then, in effect,
@CadyandZoe, you excluded yourself from the ransom that Jesus paid!