Where is it written that Mary was preserved from original sin? And may I ask, what was original sin?
Giving birth in Israel meant a period of "uncleanness" for the mother. If the baby was a boy, she was considered "unclean" for seven days, the same as during her menstrual period. The eighth day the child was circumcised, but for another 33 days the mother was "unclean" with regard to touching anything holy or coming into the sanctuary.
If the baby was a girl, this 40-day period was doubled: 14 days plus 66 days. So, from birth, the Law distinguished between male and female. In either case, at the end of the period of purification she was to bring a ram less than a year old for a burnt offering and a young pigeon or a turtledove for a sin offering. If the parents were too poor to afford a ram, as was the case with Mary and Joseph, then two doves or two pigeons served for the cleansing sacrifices. (Leviticus 12:1-8; Luke 2:22-24)
If Mary was sinless, why was there a need for a sin offering made by her? If her child was holy, then why was she "unclean" for a period after his birth?
Mary was said to have other children, named in Matthew 13:54-56...
"When Jesus had finished these parables, he departed from that district.
54 He came to his hometown, and he began to teach the people in the synagogue. They were astonished and wondered, “Where did this man get such wisdom and these mighty deeds? 55 Is this not the carpenter’s son? Is not his mother called Mary? Are not James and Joseph and Simon and Judas his brethren? 56 And are not all his sisters here with us? Where then did this man get all this?” (NCB)
Arguing that these were not his natural brothers and sisters is ridiculous! Naming his entire family starting with his father and mother to people in his hometown, who knew the family well, and naming his 4 brothers, who at that stage were not even believers (John 7:5) as well as mention of his sisters, shows that these were not his spiritual brethren.....so these were his half siblings. Nowhere does it state that Mary was to remain a virgin.....even the New Catholic Bible says...in Matthew 1:25...concerning Joseph....
"but he engaged in no marital relations with her until she gave birth to a son, whom he named Jesus."
So not ever virgin. And Jewish families were large. Jesus had at least 6 siblings.
John 2:12 also makes the distinction between his disciples and his fleshly brothers.
"After this, he went down to Capernaum with his mother, his brethren, and his disciples, and they remained there for a few days."
You see that "his mother, his brethren AND his disciples" are mentioned.
I do not believe that the Roman Catholic church has taught anything but lies to its members for centuries. There is no scriptural basis for anything they teach....
All that has been accorded to Mary is handed down from pagan mother worship. Her titles and the fact that she was 'ever virgin' are not notions from scripture, but from Catholic tradition adopted from pagan sources, and handed on to the people with absolutely no scriptural support.
Calling her "Queen of Heaven" and "Mother of God" do not accord Mary with the favor that God found in her. She was not sinless but chosen as the vessel through whom the promised seed would come. There was not a single gene in Jesus' body that came from either Joseph or Mary. It was Jesus who was sinless, not the woman who bore him.
We know through surrogacy that a mother does not have to be related to a child she carries and gives birth to.....her womb is simply used to grow the infant and give birth to it, so with Jesus, he was not related (genetically) to either parent. God was his Father and he was a product of holy spirit....Mary was not sinless.
simple answer was to fulfill the law! Christ came to fulfill all righteousness
mary was not a normal woman in any way!
Her immaculate conception in her mothers womb was miraculous!
her conception of Jesus Christ by the power of the Holy Ghost was miraculous!
The virgin birth of Jesus Christ was miraculous!
