Aunty Jane needs to study
Cognate with Theos , there are three other words to be noted :
1. Theotes , rendered "Deity", and used of Christ. Occurs only in Col_2:9, and has relation to the Godhead personally ; while
2. Theiotes , rendered "Deity" also, is Deity in the abstract . Occurs only in Rom_1:20.
3. Theios , rendered "Divine", and is used of Christ. Occurs only in 2Pe_1:3; 2Pe_1:4; and, with the Article, in Act_17:29, where it is rendered "Godhead". Gr. = that which [is] Divine.
θειότης
theiotēs
1x: divinity, deity, godhead, divine majesty, Rom_1:20.
J.
Please explain Johann....
John 10:31-36...
“31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.
32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?” (KJV)
Jesus said that Yahweh himself called the human judges in Israel “gods”....so those divinely appointed can also carry the designation “theos”. Who can say that Christ was not “divinely appointed”?
It means any god or goddess true or false, and is not a word exclusive to Yahweh.
Even satan is called “theos” in 2 Corinthians 4:4.
What did Jesus call himself? Did he say to his Jewish opposers, “yes you have it right, I am God”?
If the divine name was still in use, or if the Bible translators had retained the divine name in all the places where it was originally found, (like the ASV) John 1:1 would read very differently. It would say...
“In the beginning, was the Word and the Word was with Yahweh and the Word was divine”.
You seem to read right over the things that make it ridiculous....”in the beginning” means what? If Jesus was God then he is eternal like his Father and had no “beginning”. So what is this the “beginning” of? Revelation 3:14 says it is “the beginning God’s creation”, which Jesus here says is himself.
And if the “Logos” was “with” Yahweh, how can he at the same time, be Yahweh? And where is the third equal person in this trio? “He” is invariably missing when Yahweh and his son are mentioned, most notably in John 17:3...
“3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.” (KJV) Don’t we need to know the Holy Spirit in order to gain eternal life?
As I said, there is not a single unequivocal statement from either Yahweh or his Son that they share any kind of equality or co-eternity. They always present themselves as two separate entities who are in complete unity with one another. One is said to be the “servant” of his “God”. One prays to the other and they can be in two locations at the same time......
One scripture Johann, from either one stating that they are both God equally with the Holy Spirit.....
Surely you can find one....?