Ronald Nolette
Well-Known Member
It is really quite unbiblical.
Wrong if you read the full context of what they mean by limiterd atonement.
If you believe in unlimited atonement then you believe in universalism.
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It is really quite unbiblical.
The KJV is a translation and therefore not Infallible
that unto is a more grammatically correct translation. "eis" is a preposition that connotes a motion. While "for" can be correct it is misleading as many show when they say things like one can lose their salvation and that repentance means turning from sin (which it doesn't).
Also several ancinet writings in teh worls of the ante-nicene fathers on Luke 24:47 use the conjunction "kai" which shows repentance and remission are two seperate events . Which with "eis" as the most used word in manuscripts shows that the first action moves one to the second action.
John 3:16 alone destroys this theory!
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and that repentance means turning from sin (which it doesn't).
Wrong if you read the full context of what they mean by limiterd atonement.
If you believe in unlimited atonement then you believe in universalism.
So you hold a PHD in Koine Greek? What school?
What school did you get your masters in Greek from?
did you write a thesis? Can I see it?
You are wrong on both. The NASB also is right in Luke 24.47. The textual evidence for this reading is much stronger. Your theology is guiding how you read the Bible
There is a concept that comes out of Calvinism that I greatly disagree with and so does the Bible.Wrong!
JOhn 3:16 is a simple statement of fact. It does not say who or how or why one believes. Jesus is simply stating that whoever ( as opposed to producing an exhaustive list) will be saved! He uses "whosoever" as opposed to specific names.
And you draw that conclusio how?
If the for means repentance moves one to forgiveness I agree.
And I formed my theology after I studied the bible. I was as you before I tore into Scripture more than superficially.
It does (Ezekiel 33:19 and its context in Ezekiel 33:11-20)
No; because while Jesus died for the sins of the whole world (1 John 2:2) and gave His life as a ransom for all (1 Timothy 2:6); not everyone avails themselves of His offer of salvation.
The Cross of Christ must be appropriated to a man's life in order for it to avail in His life; and it is appropriated by faith.
Wrong!
JOhn 3:16 is a simple statement of fact. It does not say who or how or why one believes. Jesus is simply stating that whoever ( as opposed to producing an exhaustive list) will be saved! He uses "whosoever" as opposed to specific names.
Now you are being silly. If you don't trust me then don't worry about it. I am not a kid
There is a concept that comes out of Calvinism that I greatly disagree with and so does the Bible.
It is the idea that if I am not of the elect, I cannot come to Jesus for salvation, even if I wanted to.
I believe that if I want to come to Jesus, then I can; and that if I come to Him He will in no wise cast me out (John 6:37).
If I said I held a doctorate level understanding of Koine Greek, would you just lay down and believe me?
As for Ezekeil you are using teh Hebrew definition and trying ot make it mean something it doesn't in greek!
Yes the corss must be appropriated just ONCE/! Then one is saved for all eternity1 That is the word of God!
I am sorry that you fell for the flower!
People go from being unsaved to saved.Well only teh elect can come to Christ.
teh natural or unsaved man will never come to Christ on their own. Jesus said that in John and Paul reiterated that in Romans. and 1 Cor.
Teh unsaved man cannot please God nor can understand the things of God and no one cam come to Jesus unless the Father compels them!
Check all the Greek lexicons and exegetical works like Robertson and Vincent and you will see that Kosmos here means the human race. This is the start of the end of the L