Was Adam Imparted Free Will From The Beginning Of Creation?

[Kermos]

@BeyondET

For we Christians, our gracious Benefactor produces

1. divine choice of we beneficiaries unto salvation, for the Christ of us Christians says
   
   "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) and "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19)
   
   AND, Paul is in accord with Jesus' words for he wrote to the Ephesians "Blessed [be] the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly [places] in Christ, just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we would be holy and blameless before Him in love" (Ephesians 1:3-4)
   
   SO, clearly, Jesus' words in John 15:16 and John 15:19 state God exclusively chooses us believers by/of/through God
2. beneficiaries' faith/belief in Lord Jesus, for the Christ of us Christians says (see also a word about belief/faith (Greek πίστις pistis) and believe (Greek πιστεύω pisteuó))
   
   "This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent" (John 6:29)
   
   AND Paul is in accord with Jesus' words for Paul wrote to the Ephesians "by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, [it is] the gift of God; not as a result of works, so that no one may boast. For we are His work, created in Christ Jesus" (Ephesians 2:8-10)
   
   AND Peter is in accord with Jesus' words for Peter declared "God, who knows the heart, testified to them giving them the Holy Spirit, just as He also did to us; and He made no distinction between us and them, cleansing their hearts by faith" (Acts 15:8-9)
   
   SO, clearly, Jesus' words in John 6:29 state for us believers to believe in Jesus whom the Father has sent is exclusively by/of/through God
3. beneficiaries' fruit of the Spirit/righteous actions/good works, for the Christ of us Christians says
   
   "he who practices the truth comes to the Light, so that his deeds may be manifested as having been wrought in God" (John 3:21)
   
   AND Paul is in accord with Jesus' words for he wrote to the Philippians "being filled with the fruit of righteousness that [is] by Jesus Christ, to the glory and praise of God" (Philippians 1:11)
   
   SO, clearly, Jesus' words in John 3:21 state fruit in we believers is exclusively by/of/through God
4. beneficiaries' birth by the Holy Spirit, for the Christ of us Christians says
   
   "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. Do not be amazed that I said to you, 'You must be born again.' The wind blows where it wishes and you hear the sound of it, but do not know where it comes from and where it is going; so is everyone who is born of the Spirit" (John 3:5-8)
   
   AND Peter is in accord with Jesus' words for he wrote to persons residing as aliens "Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who according to His great mercy has caused us to be born again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead" (1 Peter 1:3)
   
   SO, clearly, Jesus' words in John 3:5-8 state we believers being born again is exclusively by/of/through God
5. beneficiaries' repent by God's working, for the Christ of us Christians says
   
   "I praise You, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that You have hidden these things from the wise and intelligent and have revealed them to babes" (Matthew 11:25)
   
   AND the apostles and elders are in accord with Jesus' words with thier saying, "Well then, God has granted to the Gentiles also the repentance that leads to life" (Acts 11:18)
   
   SO, clearly, Jesus' words in Matthew 11:25 state that God exclusively causes man to think differently after an encounter with God (repent means to think differently afterward)
6. beneficiaries' love by God's working, for the Christ of us Christians says
   
   "A new commandment I give to you, that you love one another, even as I have loved you, that you also love one another" (John 13:34)
   
   AND John is in accord with Jesus' words for he wrote "Beloved, let us love one another, for love is from God; and everyone who loves is born of God and knows God" (1 John 4:7, see the phrase "love is from God" meaning God is the source of true love)
   
   AND John expands with his writing of "God is Love, and the one who abides in Love abides in God, and God abides in him" (1 John 4:16, see the phrase "one who abides in Love" is equivocated with "one who abides" "in God" which extends from God's exclusivity with "God is Love")
   
   SO, clearly, Jesus' words in John 13:34 states that the love, true love (John 3:33), the very righteous love, the Godly love within us children of God, this love is exclusively by/of/through God

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam “not willingly” subjected creation to futility by eating of the tree forbidden for eating since Paul included all time prior to Paul’s birth by his writing “until now” (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

 

[BeyondET]

Look again at the semantics, BeyondET. Jesus did not say "This is the work of God, that God sent Him whom He has sent" recorded in John 6:29.

The phrase "that you believe" in John 6:29 inextricably adheres to "the work of God" in John 6:29.

Truly, Jesus says that His hearers believing is the work of God when He says "This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent" (John 6:29).

So, you preach that Jesus who knows all things (John 16:30) does not know all things based on your pretenses:

1. that Jesus said “Who touched Me because I don't know who touched Me?" but wait Jesus didn't say that, rather Jesus says "Who touched Me?” (Luke 8:45). Jesus uses the question in a display of His grandeur and a learning encounter for His disciples as opposed to lack of knowledge.

2. that Jesus was clueless about the identity of the person casting out demons because you project that Jesus ssid “Do not stop him for whoever that guy is, he is not against you because he is for you” but wait Jesus didn't say that, rather Jesus says “Do not stop him for whoever is not against you is for you” (Luke 9:50). Jesus uses "whoever" as a generalization as opposed to lack of knowledge.

3. Jesus reveals Himself as truly God and truly Man at His discretion.

Jesus Christ is truly Man (Luke 1:26-33) - the Son of Man, and Jesus Christ is truly God (Luke 1:34-35, John 8:58, John 20:28, John 5:18, John 10:30-31) - the Son of God.

Based on this Truth (John 14:6), Jesus Christ can refer to Himself as Man at his discretion and when He deems it is appropriate.

Furthermore. Jesus Christ can refer to Himself as God at his discretion and when He deems it is appropriate.

Here is an instance of Jesus, truly God, saying "I and the Father are One" (John 10:30) in which Jesus speaks in His capacity of God thus including both the person of Jesus and the person of the Father in the One True God.

Here is another instance, this time of Jesus, truly Man, saying "Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, 'I ascend to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God.'" (John 20:17) in which Jesus speaks in His capacity of Man thus including the person of Jesus and His brothers in one (John 17:21). See, the Son of Man being the firstborn of the born of God persons (Romans 8:29, Colossians 1:15, John 3:3-8).

When Jesus says "For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me" (John 6:38), then according to the Jesus, truly Man, Jesus does the will of the Father who sent the Son.

When Jesus says "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58), then according to the Jesus, truly God, Jesus exists in eternity past which means Jesus is uncreated thus Jesus proclaims that Jesus is YHWH God for there is NO other that exists in eternity past (Isaiah 45:5).

We, children of God, can also refer to Jesus in his capacity as truly God as well as His capacity as truly Man. We can use context to make the distinction.

We, born of the Holy Spirit of God persons (John 3:3-8), are one in God (John 17:21) because of the indwelling Holy Spirit (John 14:16-17), thus God is One. We are the blessed beneficiaries of the Holy Spirit of God's work in us.

People who do not believe that Jesus is God are people who are not blessed beneficiaries of the Holy Spirit of God, so such people cannot see the Kingdom of God nor even King Jesus (John 3:3-8) for Who He is. You do not believe that Jesus is God.

Jesus is "I AM" before Jesus was begotten.

Jesus, truly God, always exists "before Abraham" as "I AM" (John 8:58) prior to Mary being told the beget event of Jesus, truly Man, prophecy by Gabriel "you will conceive in your womb and bear a Son" (Luke 1:34).

Hmm, does Jesus truly Man not know the hour? Does Jesus truly God not know the hour?

God controls us Christians by God's grace for God's glory.

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

The verse says He doesn't know but truly you can't believe it. because you have no free will to choose it, thus unable to believe in such things.

Surely a person needs free will to reason with God.

Isaiah 1:18
Come now, and let us reason together, saith the LORD: though your sins be as scarlet, they shall be as white as snow; though they be red like crimson, they shall be as wool.

 

[Kermos]

The verse says He doesn't know but truly you can't believe it. because you have no free will to choose it, thus unable to believe in such things.

Surely a person needs free will to reason with God.

Isaiah 1:18
Come now, and let us reason together, saith the LORD: though your sins be as scarlet, they shall be as white as snow; though they be red like crimson, they shall be as wool.

Jesus is Everlasting Father (Isaiah 9:6) and Mighty God and truly God, so He knows the day!

My will is wholly bound to my Lord Jesus Christ (Philippians 2:13).

To whom is your will bound?

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

 

[BeyondET]

Jesus is Everlasting Father (Isaiah 9:6) and Mighty God and truly God, so He knows the day!

My will is wholly bound to my Lord Jesus Christ (Philippians 2:13).

To whom is your will bound?

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

Then explain the verse below nor the Son which is Jesus correct??


Mark 13:32
And concerning that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.

 

[Kermos]

Then explain the verse below nor the Son which is Jesus correct??


Mark 13:32
And concerning that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.

Instead, you answer the following question which was previously presented to you, as opposed to you re-asking that which has already been addressed in recent posts to you (for example, see point 3 in post 1,240 and the post to which you replied).

To whom is your will bound?

My will is wholly bound to my Lord Jesus Christ (Philippians 2:13).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

 

[BeyondET]

Instead, you answer the following question which was previously presented to you, as opposed to you re-asking that which has already been addressed in recent posts to you (for example, see point 3 in post 1,240 and the post to which you replied).

To whom is your will bound?

My will is wholly bound to my Lord Jesus Christ (Philippians 2:13).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

If man has no will of his own and it's God, there wouldn't have been a need to split a sea cause a flood, die on a tree, raise again for a revelation.

Man is imparted with free will the ability to be double minded. The first part draw near is your will.

James 4:8
Draw near to God, and He will draw near to you. Cleanse your hands, you sinners, and have purified hearts, you double-minded.

 

[Kermos]

If man has no will of his own and it's God, there wouldn't have been a need to split a sea cause a flood, die on a tree, raise again for a revelation.

Man is imparted with free will the ability to be double minded. The first part draw near is your will.

James 4:8
Draw near to God, and He will draw near to you. Cleanse your hands, you sinners, and have purified hearts, you double-minded.

"Draw near to God" (James 4:8) is called an imperative clause; in other words, James issued a command. A person whose will is wholly bound to God will obey and draw near to God; on the other hand, a self-willed person (2 Peter 2:9-10) is double-minded even drawing near to an idol not God.

I did not ask you if man has a will of his own. Man has a will.

I asked you, and I still ask you "To whom is your will bound"?

My will is wholly bound to my Lord Jesus Christ (Philippians 2:13).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

 

[BeyondET]

"Draw near to God" (James 4:8) is called an imperative clause; in other words, James issued a command. A person whose will is wholly bound to God will obey and draw near to God; on the other hand, a self-willed person (2 Peter 2:9-10) is double-minded even drawing near to an idol not God.

I did not ask you if man has a will of his own. Man has a will.

I asked you, and I still ask you "To whom is your will bound"?

My will is wholly bound to my Lord Jesus Christ (Philippians 2:13).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

People have the ability to surrender their own free will though it's daily thing sometimes.

Man has a will but not freely to use it makes no sense.

 

[Kermos]

People have the ability to surrender their own free will though it's daily thing sometimes.

Man has a will but not freely to use it makes no sense.

I find it quite telling that you avoid answering the question about YOU again.

Not only that, you provide zero scripture that states man has a free will.

Scripture makes sense, and the Apostle Peter wrote "the Lord knows how to rescue the godly from temptation, and to keep the unrighteous under punishment for the day of judgment, and especially those who indulge the flesh in its corrupt desires and despise authority. Daring, self-willed, they do not tremble when they revile angelic majesties" (2 Peter 2:9-10).

See "self-willed" in relation to judgment according to Peter.

The Apostle Paul wrote "it is God who is at work in you, both to will and to work for His good pleasure" (Philippians 2:13).

See God working the believer's will according to Paul.

Now, I ask YOU again about YOU, to whom is your will bound?

My will is wholly bound to my Lord Jesus Christ (Philippians 2:13).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

 

[BeyondET]

I find it quite telling that you avoid answering the question about YOU again.

Not only that, you provide zero scripture that states man has a free will.

Scripture makes sense, and the Apostle Peter wrote "the Lord knows how to rescue the godly from temptation, and to keep the unrighteous under punishment for the day of judgment, and especially those who indulge the flesh in its corrupt desires and despise authority. Daring, self-willed, they do not tremble when they revile angelic majesties" (2 Peter 2:9-10).

See "self-willed" in relation to judgment according to Peter.

The Apostle Paul wrote "it is God who is at work in you, both to will and to work for His good pleasure" (Philippians 2:13).

See God working the believer's will according to Paul.

Now, I ask YOU again about YOU, to whom is your will bound?

My will is wholly bound to my Lord Jesus Christ (Philippians 2:13).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

How clearer can I get, yes I have free will to shop what ever food I want in the grocery store, freely decide what kind of clothes to wear.

 

[BeyondET]

God give Adam and Eve the ability to freely choose from any tree in the garden except one. Of the ones they were aloud to eat from. There was no direction on which one to eat first second or last. They could of eaten from just one tree that was given for food it was their choice their free will to choose which one to eat from. God said they could eat freely meaning He wasn't going to impart His will on their choice of what tree to eat from that wasn't forbidden

Genesis 2:16
And the LORD God commanded him, “You may eat freely from every tree of the garden,

 

[Kermos]

How clearer can I get, yes I have free will to shop what ever food I want in the grocery store, freely decide what kind of clothes to wear.

Then you declare that you are autonomous from God's will because your will is free (disassociated, separate) from God.

You convey that you control your will youreself.

See the word "self" in the word "yourself", so, by definition, you cast yourself as self-willed. Now, see the word "self" in the subsequently quoted Apostle's declaration as well as how the Apostle uses the word "self":

"The Lord knows how to rescue the godly from temptation, and to keep the unrighteous under punishment for the day of judgment, and especially those who indulge the flesh in its corrupt desires and despise authority. Daring, self-willed, they do not tremble when they revile angelic majesties" (2 Peter 2:9-10).

See that "self-willed" people "under punishment for the day of judgment" according to Peter's Apostolic testimony.

Either you believe Apostolic testimony, or you don't.

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

 

[Kermos]

God give Adam and Eve the ability to freely choose from any tree in the garden except one. Of the ones they were aloud to eat from. There was no direction on which one to eat first second or last. They could of eaten from just one tree that was given for food it was their choice their free will to choose which one to eat from. God said they could eat freely meaning He wasn't going to impart His will on their choice of what tree to eat from that wasn't forbidden

Genesis 2:16
And the LORD God commanded him, “You may eat freely from every tree of the garden,

The Meaning Of The Hebrew Words אכל(akal)/"eat" and מות(muth)/"die"in Genesis 2:16-17

In reality, the word "freely" does not appear in the Hebrew of the Genesis 2:16-17 passage. The Hebrew source word for "freely" is truly "to eat" in English for Genesis 2:16.

Also, the word "may" does not appear in the Hebrew of the passage. The Hebrew source word for "may" is truly "you will be eating" in English for Genesis 2:16.

The word "surely" can surely lead to misinterpretation of the passage since the Hebrew source word for "surely" is truly "to die" in English for Genesis 2:17.

First, we need to look at the passage, so here is Genesis 2:16 from three different angles: New American Standard Bible, Hebrew Bible, and Interlinear.

The Lord God commanded the man, saying, "From any tree of the garden you may freely eat;" (Genesis 2:16, NASB)
ויצו יהוה אלהים על האדם לאמר מכל עץ הגן אכל תאכל
(Genesis 2:16, Hebrew Bible, historians say accent marks for vowels did not appear in early Hebrew script)
and-commanded YHVH God unto the-man saying of-every tree of-the-garden to-eat you-eating (Genesis 2:16, Interlinear word(s)for word(s) translation of English from Hebrew)

Now, here is Genesis 2:17 from three different angles of NASB, Hebrew Bible, and Interlinear.

"but from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat from it you will surely die." (Genesis 2:17, NASB)
ומעץ הדעת טוב ורע לא תאכל ממנו כי ביום אכלך ממנו מות תמות
(Genesis 2:17, Hebrew Bible, historians say accent marks for vowels did not appear in early Hebrew script)
but-of-the-tree of-the-knowledge of-good and-evil not you-eating from when in-the-day you-to-eat of-it to-die you-dying (Genesis 2:17, Interlinear word(s) for word(s) translation of English from Hebrew)

Second, we need to look at the lexical construction.
The final two words of both verses follow similar patterns. The final two words are verbs. The final two words have the same root word. The first word is the Qal (Strong's 7031 - light, swift, fleet) infinitive absolute verb form (to be). The second word is the qal (Strong's 7031 - light, swift, fleet) imperfect second person masculine singular verb form (incomplete action thus present tense applies and past tense can be included and future tense can apply).

In Hebrew grammar, the qal is the simple paradigm and simplest stem formation of the verb.

The word roots are easily distinguishable when carefully examined.

Here are the final two Hebrew words of Genesis 2:16, אכל תאכל, notice the consistent word root. Both of these words are Strong's 398 - eat.

Here are the final two Hebrew words of Genesis 2:17, מות תמות, notice the consistent word root. Both of these words are Strong's 4191 - die.

The sixth word of Genesis 2:17 is תאכל which is precisely the same word that appears as the second of the two last words at the end of the Genesis 2:16, so we have a point of reference for this word.

Notice that the Hebrew word אכל (Strong's 398 - eat) in Genesis 2:16 is not the Hebrew word חפשי (Strong's 2670 - free).

Third, it is prudent to mention that the Masoretes added the vowel accents into the Hebrew written manuscripts. The Masoretes were a sect of Jews that lived after Jesus ascended to heaven. We have earlier copies of Hebrew manuscripts that contain consonants only, so the Hebrew consonant only script is what I use here in this essay. I use the consonant only script because it more closely represents the original Hebrew writing.

Fourth, it's time to apply proper translation.

In Genesis 2:16, the final two words "אכל תאכל" (to-eat you-eating) are of significant relevance to this topic since both of these words are of the root "eat".

The first of the two words "אכל" (Strongs 398 - eat) is the infinitive verb form thus it translates to English as "to-eat"; however, some English translations use the word "freely", yet "freely" is an inappropriate translation of "eat" because the word is not the Hebrew word for "free" while it is the Hebrew word for "eat".

The second of the two words "תאכל" (Strongs 398 - eat) is the imperfect verb form thus it translates to English as "you-eating".

These two words essentially result in the first part of the command being "of every tree in the garden to eat you will be eating" thus liberty of action without punishment is expressed. Also, instead of the permissive of "may" as part of the "eat" verb, it is appropriate for "will" to be part of the "eat" verb; in other words, "may eat" is the wrong translation., and "will eat" is the correct translation.

In Genesis 2:17, the final two words "מות תמות" (to-die you-dying) are of significant relevance to this topic since both of these words are of the root "die".

The first of the two words "מות" (Strongs 4191 - die) is the infinitive verb form thus it translates to English as "to-die"; however, some English translations use the word "surely", yet "surely" is an inappropriate translation of "die".

The second of the two words "תמות" (Strongs 4191 - die) is the imperfect verb form thus it translates to English as "you-dying".

These two words essentially cause the end of the command to say "day you are to eat of it to die you will be dying" thus the punishment is expressed.

Fifth, conclusions based on the above.

Continued to post 1,254

 

[Kermos]

God give Adam and Eve the ability to freely choose from any tree in the garden except one. Of the ones they were aloud to eat from. There was no direction on which one to eat first second or last. They could of eaten from just one tree that was given for food it was their choice their free will to choose which one to eat from. God said they could eat freely meaning He wasn't going to impart His will on their choice of what tree to eat from that wasn't forbidden

Genesis 2:16
And the LORD God commanded him, “You may eat freely from every tree of the garden,

Continued from post 1,253

Since some people say proper translation of "to eat" and "to die" depend on the Hebrew language construct, so then there should be no problem switching "freely" to "surely" in Genesis 2:16; furthermore, there should be no problem switching "surely" to "freely" in Genesis 2:17; however, switching or keeping "freely" and/or "surely" causes confusion, yet God is not of confusion but of peace (1 Corinthians 14:33).

After all, "to-eat" followed by "you-will-be-eating" and "to-die" followed by "you-will-be-dying" have the same language construct of "qal infinitive absolute verb form" (to eat/to die) followed by "qal imperfect second person masculine singular verb form" (you-will-be-eating/you-will-be-dying).

The current English translation of "to eat" to "freely" is arbitrary in Genesis 2:16.

As it stands in the English translations, the translation of "to die" to "surely" is arbitrary in Genesis 2:17.

If one says that the vowel marks dictate the language construct, then such a one relies on the Masoretic Manuscript edits that the Masoretes added nearly 2,000 years after the original manuscripts, so that is arbitrary and capricous in Genesis 2:16-17.

The bottom line is that "to eat" must be translated "to eat", and "to die" must be translated "to die".

The word "freely" in the English translations of Genesis 2:16 should not be used because the underlying Hebrew word truly means "to eat".

The word "surely" in the English translations of Genesis 2:17 should not be used because the underlying Hebrew word truly means "to die".

The word "may" in the English translations of Genesis 2:16 improperly represents the underlying Hebrew; rather, the word "will" (verb future tense) is appropriate based on the underlying Hebrew word.

Genesis 2:16-17 contains a command, the word "command" in Genesis 2:16 is singular, not plural, but singular, so all of the Word of God recorded in Genesis 2:16-17 is a single command. The word "may" in Genesis 2:16 used in the English translations linguistically reduces the command to a request because the option of eating from none of the trees would be valid with the word "may"; however, with the word "will" (verb future tense) then the Integrity of a command linguistically remains intact.

For the sake of consistency, if we apply the word "may" into the last of the final two words of Genesis 2:17, just as the English translators did in Genesis 2:16, then it becomes err apparent that the word "may" fails in that position for both verses. The result for Genesis 2:17 would be essentially "day you are to eat of it to die you may be dying" thus a potential punishment is expressed, so this is ambiguous. God is precise, so ambiguous does not work.

This demonstrates that the verbs used by God to construct the final two words of Genesis 2:16 and Genesis 2:17 do not contain the word "may".

For Genesis 2:16-17 to be true to form, conjugates of "eat" must be used for each of the final two words in Genesis 2:16, and conjugates of "die" must be used for each of the final two words in Genesis 2:17.

Proper Translastion Based On The Hebrew​

First, Genesis 2:16:

and commanded YHWH God to the man, saying "Of every tree in the garden to eat you will be eating"

Second, please see this essay's "The Meaning Of The Hebrew Word כִּ֗י(ki)/'for'/'when' in Genesis 2:17 Comparison With Other Portions of Scripture" section explaining the usage of the grammatically accurate word "when".
Third, Genesis 2:17:

"but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, not eating from, when in the day you are to eat of it to die you will be dying"

Fourth, properly bringing the two verses cohesively together to illuminate the entire command Genesis 2:16-17:

and commanded YHWH God to the man, saying "Of every tree in the garden to eat you will be eating, but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, not eating from, when in the day you are to eat of it to die you will be dying"

There is no "free" for freewill in Genesis 2:16-17.

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

 

[BeyondET]

Continued from post 1,253

Since some people say proper translation of "to eat" and "to die" depend on the Hebrew language construct, so then there should be no problem switching "freely" to "surely" in Genesis 2:16; furthermore, there should be no problem switching "surely" to "freely" in Genesis 2:17; however, switching or keeping "freely" and/or "surely" causes confusion, yet God is not of confusion but of peace (1 Corinthians 14:33).

After all, "to-eat" followed by "you-will-be-eating" and "to-die" followed by "you-will-be-dying" have the same language construct of "qal infinitive absolute verb form" (to eat/to die) followed by "qal imperfect second person masculine singular verb form" (you-will-be-eating/you-will-be-dying).

The current English translation of "to eat" to "freely" is arbitrary in Genesis 2:16.

As it stands in the English translations, the translation of "to die" to "surely" is arbitrary in Genesis 2:17.

If one says that the vowel marks dictate the language construct, then such a one relies on the Masoretic Manuscript edits that the Masoretes added nearly 2,000 years after the original manuscripts, so that is arbitrary and capricous in Genesis 2:16-17.

The bottom line is that "to eat" must be translated "to eat", and "to die" must be translated "to die".

The word "freely" in the English translations of Genesis 2:16 should not be used because the underlying Hebrew word truly means "to eat".

The word "surely" in the English translations of Genesis 2:17 should not be used because the underlying Hebrew word truly means "to die".

The word "may" in the English translations of Genesis 2:16 improperly represents the underlying Hebrew; rather, the word "will" (verb future tense) is appropriate based on the underlying Hebrew word.

Genesis 2:16-17 contains a command, the word "command" in Genesis 2:16 is singular, not plural, but singular, so all of the Word of God recorded in Genesis 2:16-17 is a single command. The word "may" in Genesis 2:16 used in the English translations linguistically reduces the command to a request because the option of eating from none of the trees would be valid with the word "may"; however, with the word "will" (verb future tense) then the Integrity of a command linguistically remains intact.

For the sake of consistency, if we apply the word "may" into the last of the final two words of Genesis 2:17, just as the English translators did in Genesis 2:16, then it becomes err apparent that the word "may" fails in that position for both verses. The result for Genesis 2:17 would be essentially "day you are to eat of it to die you may be dying" thus a potential punishment is expressed, so this is ambiguous. God is precise, so ambiguous does not work.

This demonstrates that the verbs used by God to construct the final two words of Genesis 2:16 and Genesis 2:17 do not contain the word "may".

For Genesis 2:16-17 to be true to form, conjugates of "eat" must be used for each of the final two words in Genesis 2:16, and conjugates of "die" must be used for each of the final two words in Genesis 2:17.

Proper Translastion Based On The Hebrew​

First, Genesis 2:16:


Second, please see this essay's "The Meaning Of The Hebrew Word כִּ֗י(ki)/'for'/'when' in Genesis 2:17 Comparison With Other Portions of Scripture" section explaining the usage of the grammatically accurate word "when".
Third, Genesis 2:17:

Fourth, properly bringing the two verses cohesively together to illuminate the entire command Genesis 2:16-17:​

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There is no "free" for freewill in Genesis 2:16-17.

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

Wrong they surely was living off the fruit of those trees that God said they were freely allowed to eat of them. They didn't die when eaten the fruit of those trees.

You are implying the knowledge tree to all the trees in the garden as pertaining to death. That's a complete misunderstanding of the trees that Adam and Eve were aloud to live on the food they ate.

Adam and Eve eat food to live no doubt...

Humans were not superhumans that they didn't need food to eat.

When you imply Genesis 2:16 is talking about to die death your talking about the tree of life that was in the garden also.

 

[Kermos]

Wrong they surely was living off the fruit of those trees that God said they were freely allowed to eat of them. They didn't die when eaten the fruit of those trees.

Did you even read the post to which you replied? The Hebrew is quoted, and the word "freely" is not in Genesis 2:16, but the word is truly "eating".

God commanded that they eat the of all trees in the garden except for the tree of the knowledge of good and evil which alone carried repercussion (Genesis 2:16-17).

You are implying the knowledge tree to all the trees in the garden as pertaining to death. That's a complete misunderstanding of the trees that Adam and Eve were aloud to live on the food they ate.

Adam and Eve eat food to live no doubt...

Humans were not superhumans that they didn't need food to eat.

When you imply Genesis 2:16 is talking about to die death your talking about the tree of life that was in the garden also.

There are no repercussions regarding the eating of the other trees in the garden in Genesis 2:16-17. The tree of life would specifically relate to living forever (Genesis 3:22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

 

[BeyondET]

Did you even read the post to which you replied? The Hebrew is quoted, and the word "freely" is not in Genesis 2:16, but the word is truly "eating".

God commanded that they eat the of all trees in the garden except for the tree of the knowledge of good and evil which alone carried repercussion (Genesis 2:16-17).



There are no repercussions regarding the eating of the other trees in the garden in Genesis 2:16-17. The tree of life would specifically relate to living forever (Genesis 3:22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

Yes in no direct order of the ones they were aloud to eat from. They could choose one or 2 or 3 to eat from it was their choice just not of the knowledge tree. There was more trees than the knowledge tree and life tree in the garden.

As the verse so richly says, you need to rethink it.

Here's another one God didn't tell Adam what to name animals. Adam freely chose names he saw fit and it was so.

I'll ask again why the cross and for who if man's will is not their own. In your opinion God controls chosen the will of man, then why a need for a crucifixion?, Ark?, Divided sea?.

Genesis 3:22 isn't talking about one tree, it takes two to tango. Adam and Eve already ate of the knowledge tree can't eat of the tree of life and live forever in their physical form man. That's what the verse is saying its referencing of them already had eaten of the knowledge tree. If they chewed on both, live forever in physical form.

 

[DJT_47]

The scriptures don't overtly say, but it's obvious that he made a choice which by doing so was exercising his free will.

 

[Kermos]

Yes in no direct order of the ones they were aloud to eat from. They could choose one or 2 or 3 to eat from it was their choice just not of the knowledge tree. There was more trees than the knowledge tree and life tree in the garden.

As the verse so richly says, you need to rethink it.

Here's another one God didn't tell Adam what to name animals. Adam freely chose names he saw fit and it was so.

I'll ask again why the cross and for who if man's will is not their own. In your opinion God controls chosen the will of man, then why a need for a crucifixion?, Ark?, Divided sea?.

Genesis 3:22 isn't talking about one tree, it takes two to tango. Adam and Eve already ate of the knowledge tree can't eat of the tree of life and live forever in their physical form man. That's what the verse is saying its referencing of them already had eaten of the knowledge tree. If they chewed on both, live forever in physical form.

I reject your command to "rethink" by adding free will to the Word of God - even as recorded in Genesis 2:16-17 and Genesis 3:22. In Genesis 3:22, God says Adam might act a certain way but there is no mention of choose as in free will choice. Free will is not in Genesis 2:16-17 nor Genesis 3:22.

It is written "do not add to His words or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6).

You adding "free will" scripture is called adulterating the Word of God.

Once adulterated, it's no longer the Word of God but rather the word of BeyondET.

Look at "and commanded YHWH God to the man, saying "Of every tree in the garden to eat you will be eating, but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, not eating from, when in the day you are to eat of it to die you will be dying" (Genesis 2:16-17), and see there is no free-will (also see post 1,253 just as shown to you a little earlier about this passage in this thread).

God Declares The Cause And Effect For Adam Eating Of The Forbidden Tree.

After Adam ate of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 3:6), to Adam, God said "Because you have listened to the voice of your wife, and have eaten from the tree about which I commanded you, saying, 'You shall not eat from it'; Cursed is the ground because of you; In toil you will eat of it All the days of your life. Both thorns and thistles it shall grow for you; And you will eat the plants of the field; By the sweat of your face You will eat bread, Till you return to the ground, Because from it you were taken; For you are dust, And to dust you shall return." (Genesis 3:17-19)
The word "because" inherently indicates cause in (Genesis 3:17), and the word "because" is the first word that God said to Adam in Genesis 3:17-19.

God declares the cause as being that Adam listened to the voice of his wife.

God LITERALLY stated that the CAUSE was Adam LISTENED to Adam's wife's voice; moveover, free will choice is NOT included as a CAUSE; therefore, the Apostle Paul's conveyance that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree (Romans 8:20) is in accord with the recorded Word of God in Genesis 3:17.

God declares the effect as being that the ground would be cursed because of Adam as well as to dust Adam would return.

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

 

[Kermos]

The scriptures don't overtly say, but it's obvious that he made a choice which by doing so was exercising his free will.

Since "The scriptures don't overtly say", then when your heart alters the scriptures to read such as "he made a choice which by doing so was exercising his free will" that is called adulterating the Word of God.

Once adulterated, it's no longer the Word of God but rather the word of DJT_47.

Look at "and commanded YHWH God to the man, saying "Of every tree in the garden to eat you will be eating, but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, not eating from, when in the day you are to eat of it to die you will be dying" (Genesis 2:16-17), and see there is no free-will (also see post 1,253 just a little ways up on this page for important details about this passage).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.