Was Adam Imparted Free Will From The Beginning Of Creation?

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Kermos

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@Enoch111 @Taken @Renniks @GISMYS_7 @Backlit @Riverwalker @BARNEY BRIGHT @TLHKAJ @HisLife @Ronald Nolette @post @Wynona @Iconoclast @CharismaticLady @MatthewG @Abaxvahl @BeyondET @RLT63 @n2thelight

Paul declares God's Sovereign control of man with "He has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires" (Romans 9:18).

Immediately after writing that God is in control Paul continued with "You will say to me then, 'Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?'" (Romans 9:19) - herein resides the fault question.

Romans 9:18 segues right into Romans 9:19-23.

Bringing these together:

Paul conveyed "God is in control" (Romans 9:18) then the "you" defiantly mocks God's control with "then, 'Only God can obey himself in your theology. They are just puppets for who resists His will?'" (the book of Second Guessing 9:18, everything from "Only" to "puppets" is verbatim from a free-willian's writing to me, and the words are represented very well within the Romans 9:19 context).

The "you" in Romans 9:19-20 is the person who rejects God by way of rejecting God's exclusive control of man's salvation; in other words, the "you" is the person that claims man has a free will.

Do not forget that it is written that no purpose of God's can be thwarted (Job 42:2), so scripture reveals that man cannot resist God's will, and Paul knows scripture.

Notice the "you" questioning why God still finds fault. Paul conveys that the "you" asks the fault question in a mocking manner, and the subsequent question about God's will continues with the "you" mocking God who is entirely in control of man's salvation according to Paul (Ephesians 2:8-10 for example).

The "you" mocking is certain because immediately after the question about God's will, Paul wrote:

On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, "Why did you make me like this," will it? (Romans 9:20)

See the "On the contrary" which is indicative that the following statement of Paul refutes the mocking questions of the "you" about fault and about God's will (in Romans 9:19).

Paul continues immediately after "On the contrary" in Romans 9:20 showing that the thing molded cannot resist the will of the Molder.

The thing molded represents the "you".

The Molder represents God.

IN TRUTH, PAUL CONVEYS THAT MAN CANNOT RESIST GOD'S WILL (ROMANS 9:19-20)!

Behold the parallel of the defiant "you" as adversary against God (in Romans 9:19-20) to free-willians based upon the content of free-willian philosophical writings.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam “not willingly” subjected creation to futility by eating of the tree forbidden for eating since Paul included all time prior to Paul’s birth by his writing “until now” (Romans 8:20-22).

“YHWH is righteous in all his ways and holy in all his works” (Psalm 145:17).

THE ALL KNOWING GOD (JOHN 16:30) GETS EXCLUSIVE CREDIT AND GLORY FOR MAN’S SALVATION (JOHN 3:3-8), AND MAN DOES NOTHING - NOT EVEN A CHOICE (JOHN 15:16).

The Redemption of Mankind through the Christ is certain, even before the foundation of the world (Ephesians 1:1-14).

"What I have said, that I will bring about; what I have planned, that I will do" (Isaiah 46:11).

No purpose of God's can be thwarted (Job 42:2).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.
 

Taken

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Men do not have a free will, and there is no scripture that states that men have a free will.

Scripture DOES NOT NEED TO EXPRESSLY use the WORDS...
Man has Freewill.

Anyone with an ounce of gray matter, CAN plainly READ all throughout Scripture Men of their own Freewill Freely Make their own Choices.

Anyone with an ounce of gray matter, CAN plainly KNOW every time they Decide and Choose to DO as they WILL, they are exercising Their own Freewill.

Now since YOU CLAIM YOU DO NOT HAVE FREEWILL.....
Share with us...
WHO makes you sit and write the Words THEY TELL YOU TO Write?

Your post is devoid of scripture, so that means that all your thoughts that you expressed are devoid of scripture.

That is False. You have been Clearly Quoted Scripture of men exercising their own Freewill, making their own choices.

Not anyones’ responsibility to UNDERSTAND FOR YOU.
 
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Renniks

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The "you" in Romans 9:19-20 is the person who rejects God by way of rejecting God's exclusive control of man's salvation; in other words, the "you" is the person that claims man has a free will.
Nope. The " you" is a rebellious Jew, mad because God is using his rebellion to reach the gentiles.

Probably think Romans 9 is all about you, don't you, don't you? You're so vain!
 

Kermos

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@Renniks Have you EVER heard anything so ridiculous?


Hey Adam don’t eat from this tree....

Poor Adam with no Freewill...couldn’t eat of that fruit...

Uh, uh, oops Poor Adam with no Freewill...Freely Chose to Eat.

Who thinks and then reasons such nonsense, and THEN tries to DEBATE

Adam did not freely choose to eat of that tree?

Oh...Hey Adam name the animals.

I can not Freely Choose names for them....

Oh...Hey Adam What are you doing naming the woman Eve?

Who said you have FREEWILL to choose a name for the woman?

Oh....Hey Choose whom you shall serve....

uh...poor “no freewill” @Kermos


The Bondage Of A Man's Will

Free-willians, in a respect, are correct that "there's no difference between self will and free will", and that respect is that both self will and free will lead to hell.

Now, instead of listening to themselves lie with things like "Free will is all through the scriptures", they need to listen to Apostolic testimony as shown below.

Peter the Apostle wrote that prior to being saved, people have a self will that brings such people under damnation with the devil according to the Apostle Peter (2 Peter 2:9-10).

Paul the Apostle wrote that after being saved, people have a will that is bound under the loving control of God according to the Apostle Paul (Philippians 2:13).

Here's Paul from the Bible, again. Overall, Paul uses free will as illusory instead of concrete in Philemon 1:14 - and this is the only occurrence of "free will" that I am aware of in the New American Standard Bible New Testament.

Free-willians do not have a free will, as described by Paul.

Free-willians do have a self will, as described by Peter.

Free-willians gleefully separate themselves from God's will and the Christ of us Christians Who says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) and "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19). We Christians in God's Spirit have a will bound enthusiastically in joy and love to God by God for God through God, as described by Paul.

The above mentioned Apostolic testimony verbatim:

"the Lord knows how to rescue the godly from temptation, and to keep the unrighteous under punishment for the day of judgment, 10and especially those who indulge the flesh in its corrupt desires and despise authority; daring, self-willed, they do not tremble when they revile angelic majesties" (2 Peter 2:9-10).

"it is God who is at work in you, both to will and to work for His good pleasure" (Philippians 2:13).

"but without your consent I did not want to do anything, so that your goodness would not be, in effect, by compulsion but of your own free will" (Philemon 1:14).

By God's grace, for God's glory!

Again your post is devoid of scripture as support for free-will, so that means that all your thoughts that you expressed are devoid of the same.

A word about your thoughts. It is written, "'For My thoughts are not your thoughts, Nor are your ways My ways,' declares the LORD. 'For [as] the heavens are higher than the earth, So are My ways higher than your ways And My thoughts than your thoughts.'" (Isaiah 55:8-9).

A word about adding to scripture as you have done. It is written "do not add to His words or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6), and the above explanation of your thoughts shows where you added to scripture.

Of the new Jerusalem, the Apostle John wrote "nothing unclean, and no one who practices abomination and lying, shall ever come into it, but only those whose names are written in the Lamb's book of life" (Revelation 21:27) - notice that no one who practices lying gets in, and a human adding to scripture is the human lying.

Your free will assertion is referring to man attempting to override God's thoughts with man's thoughts, and that is evil.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam “not willingly” subjected creation to futility by eating of the tree forbidden for eating since Paul included all time prior to Paul’s birth by his writing “until now” (Romans 8:20-22).

“YHWH is righteous in all his ways and holy in all his works” (Psalm 145:17).

THE ALL KNOWING GOD (JOHN 16:30) GETS EXCLUSIVE CREDIT AND GLORY FOR MAN’S SALVATION (JOHN 3:3-8), AND MAN DOES NOTHING - NOT EVEN A CHOICE (JOHN 15:16).

The Redemption of Mankind through the Christ is certain, even before the foundation of the world (Ephesians 1:1-14).

"What I have said, that I will bring about; what I have planned, that I will do" (Isaiah 46:11).

No purpose of God's can be thwarted (Job 42:2).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.
 

Kermos

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All I see is, that you twist what someone says. I didn't quote any scripture, so I didn't add to any scripture. What you don't like is that I reasoned on a particular scripture. Specifically Genesis 1:26.

Clearly, you referred to Genesis 1:26, and you just affirmed that you were referring to Genesis 1:26 , so you DID add to scripture in your heart in your very first sentence of that post - you added to the Word of God.

Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness, a free moral agent; and let them rule over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the sky and over the cattle and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth.” (the word of BARNEY BRIGHT)

Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; and let them rule over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the sky and over the cattle and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth.” (Genesis 1:26)

You wickedly adulterate the Word of God, so the words you present are not the Word of God, but the evil word of BARNEY BRIGHT.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam “not willingly” subjected creation to futility by eating of the tree forbidden for eating since Paul included all time prior to Paul’s birth by his writing “until now” (Romans 8:20-22).

“YHWH is righteous in all his ways and holy in all his works” (Psalm 145:17).

THE ALL KNOWING GOD (JOHN 16:30) GETS EXCLUSIVE CREDIT AND GLORY FOR MAN’S SALVATION (JOHN 3:3-8), AND MAN DOES NOTHING - NOT EVEN A CHOICE (JOHN 15:16).

The Redemption of Mankind through the Christ is certain, even before the foundation of the world (Ephesians 1:1-14).

"What I have said, that I will bring about; what I have planned, that I will do" (Isaiah 46:11).

No purpose of God's can be thwarted (Job 42:2).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.
 

Kermos

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People ADD meanings when Posting Scriptures, to People like you, BECAUSE, of your failure to Understand.


God CREATED a terrestrial (earthly) thing, God called A MAN, A FORM, A BODY.


God DID NOT, IMPART, a heart, organs, brain, blood, tissue, IN a BODY, HE CREATED, it!


God DID NOT, IMPART, thoughts, into the brain.

God CREATED, the BODY.


God CREATED the BODY, WITH THE ABILITY, of it brain to absorb knowledge, to think, to act, to move, to walk, to sit, to recline, to choose, to reject, to see, to hear, to taste, to smell, to speak, it’s heart to beat, it’s blood to flow, it’s nerves to react, it’s eyes to blink, it’s skin to feel touch, to feel hunger, to eat, it’s gut to digest, it’s anus to expel waste, on an on Wonderfully Created!


God MADE the BODY, WITH GODS BREATH, God BLOWS (IMPARTS) INTO the Nostrils of a Body’s Nose, TO CAUSE the CREATED BODY TO BEGIN (LIVING ITS OWN INDEPENDENT LIFE) FUNCTIONING.


Gods BREATH blown IN (imparted) A MAN, IS A SOUL,

(Gods Breath, and ALL souls BELONG TO GOD).

Gods BREATH blown IN a man, IS A SOUL, AND ONCE IN A MAN:

* That mans CREATED BODY becomes MADE Alive, Living.

* That mans CREATED BODY and SOUL...ARE BOTH CALLED by that mans NAME.


THAT MAN...has TWO “THOUGHT” sources “IN” His body.

* A brain, called the Carnal Mind. It receives knowledge, processes the knowledge, decides to BELIEVE the Knowledge OR NOT.

(It’s a process CALLED “LOGICAL” Conclusion)

* Logic IS having received several pieces of KNOWLEDGE, and choosing WHICH piece of KNOWLEDGE “TO Believe” and WHICH piece of KNOWLEDGE “TO Reject”.

* Every individual WITH a functioning BRAIN; (Carnal MIND), can Become aware of any KNOWLEDGE, and FREELY CHOOSE TO BELIEVE the KNOWLEDGE OR NOT...<— NOT a phenomenon...it applies to everyone...and is CALLED that person Exercising his OWN Will Freely, to BELIEVE or REJECT whatever he chooses....which IS FREEWILL!


Adam was NOT GIVEN “imparted” FREEWILL.

Adam was CREATED with a Brain, A Carnal MIND, WITH THE ABILITY TO THINK, Freely Decide, Freely Choose to Believe, and Freely Choose to Do as his OWN WILL, Freely Decided.


** ONCE ADAM WAS independently MADE alive...(via Gods BREATH) Adams BODILY Functions BEGAN FUNCTIONING!

* Uh, ding, ding, ding......His OWN brain, Carnal Mind, THOUGHT, CHOSE, DID as Adam’s OWN FREEWILL Decided.


* Adam heard and listened to God.

* Adam chose a name for the woman.

* Adam chose names for animals.

* Adam chose to walk about in the garden.

* Adam chose to eat the fruit the woman took from the tree.

* Adam chose to make an apron of fig leaves.

* Adam chose to cover his flesh with the apron.

* Adam chose to hide from God.

* Adam chose to respond to God when God called to him.

* Adam chose to answer God truthfully about what he ate.

* Adam chose to Not eat of the Tree of Life.


Seriously....YOU ARE ATTEMPTING TO ARGUE man DOES NOT HAVE “FREEWILL”....man IS NOT created with FREEWILL?


YET, Scripture CLEARLY reveals ADAM FREELY Deciding and Doing,

BY, through, of, his OWN freewill.


Astounding!

In your very first sentence, you openly admit before everyone that you yourself add to the Word of God!

As the opening post contains:

If anyone venture a reply to this thread, I encourage diligent care for it is written "do not add to His words or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6).

"Imparted" is indicative of being created and/or being made, so your third sentence is a lie because God DID impart man with heart, organs, brain, blood, and tissue in a body.

It is written "For behold, He forms mountains and He creates the wind and He declares to man what are his thoughts, He makes dawn into darkness and He treads on the high places of the earth, YHWH God of hosts is His name" (Amos 4:13).

But you contradictorially wrote "God DID NOT, IMPART, thoughts, into the brain"; therefore, you adulterate the above into
"He creates the wind and He FAILS to declare to man what are his thoughts" (Taken's book of Second Guessing 4:13).

You wickedly adulterate the Word of God, so the words you present are not the Word of God, but the evil word of Taken.


Of the new Jerusalem, the Apostle John wrote "nothing unclean, and no one who practices abomination and lying, shall ever come into it, but only those whose names are written in the Lamb's book of life" (Revelation 21:27) - notice that no one who practices lying gets in, and a human adding to scripture is the human lying.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam “not willingly” subjected creation to futility by eating of the tree forbidden for eating since Paul included all time prior to Paul’s birth by his writing “until now” (Romans 8:20-22).

“YHWH is righteous in all his ways and holy in all his works” (Psalm 145:17).

THE ALL KNOWING GOD (JOHN 16:30) GETS EXCLUSIVE CREDIT AND GLORY FOR MAN’S SALVATION (JOHN 3:3-8), AND MAN DOES NOTHING - NOT EVEN A CHOICE (JOHN 15:16).

The Redemption of Mankind through the Christ is certain, even before the foundation of the world (Ephesians 1:1-14).

"What I have said, that I will bring about; what I have planned, that I will do" (Isaiah 46:11).

No purpose of God's can be thwarted (Job 42:2).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.
 
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Taken

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"there's no difference between self will and free will"...

So?

[/QUOTE] Peter the Apostle wrote that prior to being saved, people have a self will ...[/QUOTE]

Yet, according to YOU, Your whole point rests on People DO NOT HAVE FREEWILL.

And NOW you Contradict yourself.


Again your post is devoid of scripture as support for free-will, so that means....

A word about adding to scripture as you have done.

You HAVE AGAIN Contradicted yourself.


Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

Kermos, PAY ATTENTION...no one is in agreement WITH YOU.
AND WHY, is not secret...

YOU ACCUSE, and THEN SHOW YOUR OWN ACCUSATIONS ARE FALSE!
 

Taken

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In your very first sentence, you openly admit before everyone that you yourself add to the Word of God!

False. Discussing Scripture IS NOT ADDING TO SCRIPTURE!
"Imparted" is indicative of being created and/or being made, so your third sentence is a lie because God DID impart man with heart, organs, brain, blood, and tissue in a body.

:rolleyes:

God CREATED, BY FORMING.
God MAKES, BY IMPARTING.


God FORMED, A manKIND of thing, WITH a heart, organs, brain, blood, tissue, bones........EARS, NOSE, EYES, TONGUE, FLESH....

God IMPARTED, HIS BREATH OF LIFE INTO THE FORM....
....and the EARS/hears
....and the NOSE/smells
....and the EYES/see
....and the TONGUE/tastes, speaks
....and the FLESH/feels touch
...and the MIND/thinks

But you contradictorially wrote "God DID NOT, IMPART, thoughts, into the brain";

God IMPARTS, His Breath of Life, and I have never said otherwise.

You wickedly adulterate the Word of God, so the words you present are not the Word of God, but the evil word of Taken.

TAKEN, YOU ARE A LIAR.

YOU are OUT OF LINE.
 
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BARNEY BRIGHT

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Clearly, you referred to Genesis 1:26, and you just affirmed that you were referring to Genesis 1:26 , so you DID add to scripture in your heart in your very first sentence of that post - you added to the Word of God.

Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness, a free moral agent; and let them rule over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the sky and over the cattle and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth.” (the word of BARNEY BRIGHT)

Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; and let them rule over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the sky and over the cattle and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth.” (Genesis 1:26)

You wickedly adulterate the Word of God, so the words you present are not the Word of God, but the evil word of BARNEY BRIGHT.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam “not willingly” subjected creation to futility by eating of the tree forbidden for eating since Paul included all time prior to Paul’s birth by his writing “until now” (Romans 8:20-22).

“YHWH is righteous in all his ways and holy in all his works” (Psalm 145:17).

THE ALL KNOWING GOD (JOHN 16:30) GETS EXCLUSIVE CREDIT AND GLORY FOR MAN’S SALVATION (JOHN 3:3-8), AND MAN DOES NOTHING - NOT EVEN A CHOICE (JOHN 15:16).

The Redemption of Mankind through the Christ is certain, even before the foundation of the world (Ephesians 1:1-14).

"What I have said, that I will bring about; what I have planned, that I will do" (Isaiah 46:11).

No purpose of God's can be thwarted (Job 42:2).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.

I'm going to continue to reason on the scriptures and if I see something different than you are saying so be it. I'm not going to blindly believe what you say. It looks to me that unless someone agrees with you, you unfairly say they are adding to scripture. I don't agree with you and obviously when someone disagrees with you you past judgment on them, by saying they have added to scripture. Just remember to the rest of us human beings You're just another human being we don't see you as some infallible person who can't possibly be wrong about what you say. So I understand when another human being disagrees with me, but when someone judges someone else because they disagree with them, all I'm going to see them as is, judgmental people who obviously thinks people should just blindly believe them.
 

Kermos

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You can call me all you want Kermos. You have proven to me you will take scripture out of context to prove your belief. You don't have in the true God or his Christ who is his only begotten Son. You don't teach and preach about the true God of the scriptures so you don't preach and teach the Christ of the scriptures. I expect those who are like you to make many derogatory comments about me just as Jesus had many derogatory comments made about him. Those things won't bother me, Jesus said things like that would happen. You and I are going to disagree I'm not going to preach anything different because you disagree with it or make many derogatory comments about me. Like I said all you shown me about you is that you will take scripture out of context to try to prove your belief.

A person writing about a subject does not prevent the person from interjecting about another subject whether related or unrelated to the first subject.

Paul is not a simpleton that you make him out to be with Paul's writing in Philippians 2:1-13.

While Paul wrote about the subject of deference and love among the brethren, Paul interjected about the subject that Jesus existed in the form of God (Philippians 2:6).

For Jesus to exist in the form of God, this means that Jesus is always the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) because there is only One God and no other (Isaiah 45:5).

Notice that I did not write anything about the "equality with God" in the previous five paragraphs. We Christians understand that we are not equal with God - we are the creatures, and Jesus is Creator YHWH God (John 1:1-5).

I addressed your question from your previous post, now how about you face the questions and answers below which have been presented to you previously.

Did you write "The scriptures at Philippians 2:3-6 says that even though Jesus was in Gods form he never considered himself equal to God"?

Why, as a matter of fact, yes you did, as recorded in post #305 in the "Jesus is God" thread, and you broke your context constraint to try to prove that Jesus is not God.

According to your own measure (Matthew 7:2), BARNEY BRIGHT, you used Philippians 2:3-6 out of context because you restricted the context to "Paul was telling the members in the Philippian congregation to be humble and think others in the Philippian congregation were superior to them" (your scribe in the "Jesus is God" thread - and repeated by you in your writings).

Did you know that you are a scribe? You are a scribe because you scribe your posts.

You are a hypocrite (Matthew 23:13) about miscontextual use of Philippians 2:3-6, and Jesus pronounces "woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites, because you shut off the kingdom of heaven from people; for you do not enter in yourselves, nor do you allow those who are entering to go in" (Matthew 23:13).

I tell you that you changed Paul's words from being his words into your own antichrist words. Just look for the word "never" in the Philippians 2:3-6. You'll NEVER find the word "never" in an accurate translation.

You are intent on everlasting punishment for yourself (Matthew 25:46) because you deny Jesus (Matthew 10:33). For example, your heart wickedly subtracts that Paul refers to Lord Jesus as truly God in Philippians 2:6.
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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A person writing about a subject does not prevent the person from interjecting about another subject whether related or unrelated to the first subject.

Paul is not a simpleton that you make him out to be with Paul's writing in Philippians 2:1-13.

While Paul wrote about the subject of deference and love among the brethren, Paul interjected about the subject that Jesus existed in the form of God (Philippians 2:6).

For Jesus to exist in the form of God, this means that Jesus is always the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) because there is only One God and no other (Isaiah 45:5).

Notice that I did not write anything about the "equality with God" in the previous five paragraphs. We Christians understand that we are not equal with God - we are the creatures, and Jesus is Creator YHWH God (John 1:1-5).

I addressed your question from your previous post, now how about you face the questions and answers below which have been presented to you previously.

Did you write "The scriptures at Philippians 2:3-6 says that even though Jesus was in Gods form he never considered himself equal to God"?

Why, as a matter of fact, yes you did, as recorded in post #305 in the "Jesus is God" thread, and you broke your context constraint to try to prove that Jesus is not God.

According to your own measure (Matthew 7:2), BARNEY BRIGHT, you used Philippians 2:3-6 out of context because you restricted the context to "Paul was telling the members in the Philippian congregation to be humble and think others in the Philippian congregation were superior to them" (your scribe in the "Jesus is God" thread - and repeated by you in your writings).

Did you know that you are a scribe? You are a scribe because you scribe your posts.

You are a hypocrite (Matthew 23:13) about miscontextual use of Philippians 2:3-6, and Jesus pronounces "woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites, because you shut off the kingdom of heaven from people; for you do not enter in yourselves, nor do you allow those who are entering to go in" (Matthew 23:13).

I tell you that you changed Paul's words from being his words into your own antichrist words. Just look for the word "never" in the Philippians 2:3-6. You'll NEVER find the word "never" in an accurate translation.

You are intent on everlasting punishment for yourself (Matthew 25:46) because you deny Jesus (Matthew 10:33). For example, your heart wickedly subtracts that Paul refers to Lord Jesus as truly God in Philippians 2:6.

I'm not going to disagree with scripture kemos. Philippians 2:3-6 is telling those in the Philippian congregation that they are to have the same mental attitude that was in Jesus Christ, and Kemos, at Philippians 2:3-6 Paul isn't telling the members in the Philippian congregation that the mental attitude that was in Jesus Christ was that he thought himself equal with God, so that's the mental attitude the Philippian congregation members were to have. Paul was inspired to write that the only begotten Son of God who was in God's form didn't think himself to be equal with God. So Paul was saying, this humble mental attitude of thinking others as superior, is the same mind or same mental attitude that the Philippian congregation members are supposed to have because that's the mental attitude that Jesus Christ had between himself and God. Jesus Christ thought God who is his Father was superior to him. Jesus Christ didn't think himself equal to God who is his Father.
 

Kermos

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I'm not going to disagree with scripture kemos. Philippians 2:3-6 is telling those in the Philippian congregation that they are to have the same mental attitude that was in Jesus Christ, and Kemos, at Philippians 2:3-6 Paul isn't telling the members in the Philippian congregation that the mental attitude that was in Jesus Christ was that he thought himself equal with God, so that's the mental attitude the Philippian congregation members were to have. Paul was inspired to write that the only begotten Son of God who was in God's form didn't think himself to be equal with God. So Paul was saying, this humble mental attitude of thinking others as superior, is the same mind or same mental attitude that the Philippian congregation members are supposed to have because that's the mental attitude that Jesus Christ had between himself and God. Jesus Christ thought God who is his Father was superior to him. Jesus Christ didn't think himself equal to God who is his Father.

Your closing sentence "Jesus Christ didn't think himself equal to God" does not match the Word of God, not even Philippians 2:6-8, not even John 10, not even John 5:18.

Jesus existed in the form of God and Jesus has equality with God.

Let's lead off with the Apostle Paul's writing:

"who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied Himself, taking the form of a slave and being made in the likeness of men. Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross" (Paul, Philippians 2:6-8).

The term "men" indicates classification in "being made in the likeness of men" (Philippians 2:7), so your "Jesus was in the form of another person not that he was that person" thoughts apply to "men" because Jesus is not all men.

The term "man" is a specific referrant in "being found in appearance as a man" (Philippians 2:8), so your "Jesus was in the form of another person not that he was that person" thoughts start to break down with "man" because Jesus is identified among the classification of "men" as the specific "man" being addressed in the clause. After all, Jesus is truly Man.

The phrase "taking the form of a slave" is where Paul uses the word "slave" in reference to "man". In effect, Paul wrote that Jesus took "the form of a man" (Philippians 2:7); essentially, Jesus qualifies as an individual man within the group classification of men.

You need to take note of the phrase "form of" in the clause taking the form of a man (Philippians 2:7) because we are going to take a look at the exact same phrase "form of" in the prior verse.

You need to see that "YHWH is our God, YHWH is one!" (Deuteronomy 6:4) and "You shall have no other gods before Me" (Exodus 20:3) as we proceed to Philippians 2:6.

Paul wrote "He existed in the form of God" (Philippians 2:6), and Paul knows there is only one God (1 Corinthians 8:6); essentially, Jesus qualifies as an individual person within the classification of God.

Now, only one true God exists per Paul, so Paul declares Jesus is truly God, that is YHWH God, in Philippians 2:6.

Behold "form of" in Philippians 2:6 just like Philippians 2:7.

Your thoughts that Jesus being in the form of God does not mean that Jesus is truly God results in you having two gods - a sinful violation of the Commandment presented above - YOUR CONFUSION EXPLAINED (1 CORINTHIANS 14:33).

Your thoughts that Jesus being in the form of God does not mean that Jesus is YHWH God in effect results in you thinking that Jesus being in the form of man does not mean that Jesus is truly Man - a sinful rejection of Jesus Christ on your part - YOUR CONFUSION EXPLAINED (PHILIPPIANS 3:19).

Here is some more detailed explanation of the Philippians chapter 2 passage:
  1. The Apostle Paul wrote "who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped" (Philippians 2:6).

    It is accurate to think that Paul wrote "Jesus did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped".

    It is inaccurate to think that Paul wrote "Jesus did not regard equality with God a thing able to be grasped".

    It is antichrist to think that Paul's writing equates to "Jesus did not have equality with God".

    Paul wrote a dependent clause and an independent clause in Philippians 2:6, and these can be grammatically arranged "Jesus did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped; although, He existed in the form of God" (Philippians 2:6).

    The clause "Jesus did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped" depends on the clause "although, He existed in the form of God" (Philippians 2:6).

    Paul wrote of Jesus truly Man in the clause "Jesus did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped" - as an example of a brother in the Assembly of God.

    Paul wrote of Jesus truly God in the clause "although, He existed in the form of God".

    Jesus existing in the form of God is Jesus being God.
    .
  2. The follower of Jesus named Paul wrote Jesus was "found in appearance as a man" (Philippians 2:8), so Paul describes Jesus as truly Man.

    The follower of Jesus named Paul wrote Jesus "existed in the form of God" (Philippians 2:6), so Paul describes Jesus as truly God.

    As you've been shown scripturally elsewhere, Jesus' followers can refer to Jesus as truly Man and/or truly God.

    Jesus is the example for the brotherhood in the Assembly of God (John 13:15), and this is true with Philippians 2:8 and Philippians 2:6. In fact, the context of Philippians 1-11 includes Brother Immanuel's example to His Assembly.

    Nonetheless, both Philippians 2:8 and Philippians 2:6 are descriptive of who Jesus is.

    If you erase Jesus "existed in the form of God" (Philippians 2:6), then you also erase Jesus was "found in appearance as a man" (Philippians 2:8), after all, both are descriptive of Jesus in the same passage.

    If you erase Jesus was "found in appearance as a man" (Philippians 2:8), then you've erased Jesus - a grave sin.
    .
  3. Paul did not write that "He could not grasp being equal with God" - with the "He" being Jesus.

    The Apostle John wrote that Jesus made Himself equal with God (John 5:18), so Paul is not going to contradict John. Paul made this clear by preluding with the fact that Jesus "existed in the form of God" (Philippians 2:6).

    Paul was conveying that Jesus emptied Himself (Philippians 2:7) in the passage; in fact, it's the very next thing Paul wrote:

    "who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied Himself, taking the form of a slave, and being made in the likeness of men. Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross" (Paul, Philippians 2:6-8).

    Paul used the adversative conjunction "but", not the additive conjunction "and" in "but emptied Himself" (Philippians 2:7). Since "emptied Himself" attributes to Jesus, then the adversative conjunction "but" indicates an exception, a different attribution than Jesus. This means that man is the one who has trouble grasping an understanding of "equality with God".

    You only need to look in the mirror to see your antichrist thoughts "He could not grasp being equal with God" in action.

You are in grave sin. You are not saved from the wrath of God (John 3:36).

If you erase Jesus "existed in the form of God" (Philippians 2:6), then you think Jesus Christ was created, then you hold to news that is not the Good News (Gospel) of Jesus Christ (Galatians 1:6-7), so you have no gospel at all.

Back to your "do as I say not as I do" position.

I addressed your question from your previous post, now how about you face the questions and answers below which have been presented to you previously.

Did you write "The scriptures at Philippians 2:3-6 says that even though Jesus was in Gods form he never considered himself equal to God"?

Why, as a matter of fact, yes you did, as recorded in post #305 in the "Jesus is God" thread, and you broke your context constraint to try to prove that Jesus is not God.

According to your own measure (Matthew 7:2), BARNEY BRIGHT, you used Philippians 2:3-6 out of context because you restricted the context to "Paul was telling the members in the Philippian congregation to be humble and think others in the Philippian congregation were superior to them" (your scribe in the "Jesus is God" thread - and repeated by you in your writings).

Did you know that you are a scribe? You are a scribe because you scribe your posts.

You are a hypocrite (Matthew 23:13) about miscontextual use of Philippians 2:3-6, and Jesus pronounces "woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites, because you shut off the kingdom of heaven from people; for you do not enter in yourselves, nor do you allow those who are entering to go in" (Matthew 23:13).

I tell you that you changed Paul's words from being his words into your own antichrist words. Just look for the word "never" in the Philippians 2:3-6. You'll NEVER find the word "never" in an accurate translation.

You are intent on everlasting punishment for yourself (Matthew 25:46) because you deny Jesus (Matthew 10:33). For example, your heart wickedly subtracts that Paul refers to Lord Jesus as truly God in Philippians 2:6.
 
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BARNEY BRIGHT

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Like I said kermos, I'm not going to ignore verses 3-5 in Philippians chapter 2 because you want me to. Verse 5 in Philippians 2 is letting us know that the members in the Philippian congregation that Paul was speaking to at verses 3&4 of Philippians chapter 2 were to have the same mental attitude that Jesus had. So Paul wasn't teaching that Jesus thought himself equal with God. Paul at verses 5 was telling the Philippian congregation members he was speaking to in verses 3&4 they were to have the same mental attitude of humility that Jesus had. Paul taught that although Jesus was in God's form, Jesus didn't even consider the idea of trying to be equal with God. So Jesus at no time considered himself equal with God even though he was in God's form. Anyone trying to use Philippians 2:6 to teach Jesus is God are teaching something this scripture isn't saying.
 

Kermos

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Like I said kermos, I'm not going to ignore verses 3-5 in Philippians chapter 2 because you want me to. Verse 5 in Philippians 2 is letting us know that the members in the Philippian congregation that Paul was speaking to at verses 3&4 of Philippians chapter 2 were to have the same mental attitude that Jesus had. So Paul wasn't teaching that Jesus thought himself equal with God. Paul at verses 5 was telling the Philippian congregation members he was speaking to in verses 3&4 they were to have the same mental attitude of humility that Jesus had. Paul taught that although Jesus was in God's form, Jesus didn't even consider the idea of trying to be equal with God. So Jesus at no time considered himself equal with God even though he was in God's form. Anyone trying to use Philippians 2:6 to teach Jesus is God are teaching something this scripture isn't saying.

You are ignoring that Paul wrote that Jesus "existed in the form of God" (Philippians 2:6), and God is always God. Verses 3-5 do NOT change verse 6.

Back to your "do as I say not as I do" position.

addressed your question from your previous post, now how about you face the questions and answers below which have been presented to you previously.

Did you write "The scriptures at Philippians 2:3-6 says that even though Jesus was in Gods form he never considered himself equal to God"?

Why, as a matter of fact, yes you did, as recorded in post #305 in the "Jesus is God" thread, and you broke your context constraint to try to prove that Jesus is not God.

According to your own measure (Matthew 7:2), BARNEY BRIGHT, you used Philippians 2:3-6 out of context because you restricted the context to "Paul was telling the members in the Philippian congregation to be humble and think others in the Philippian congregation were superior to them" (your scribe in the "Jesus is God" thread - and repeated by you in your writings).

Did you know that you are a scribe? You are a scribe because you scribe your posts.

You are a hypocrite (Matthew 23:13) about miscontextual use of Philippians 2:3-6, and Jesus pronounces "woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites, because you shut off the kingdom of heaven from people; for you do not enter in yourselves, nor do you allow those who are entering to go in" (Matthew 23:13).

I tell you that you changed Paul's words from being his words into your own antichrist words. Just look for the word "never" in the Philippians 2:3-6. You'll NEVER find the word "never" in an accurate translation.

You are intent on everlasting punishment for yourself (Matthew 25:46) because you deny Jesus (Matthew 10:33). For example, your heart wickedly subtracts that Paul refers to Lord Jesus as truly God in Philippians 2:6.
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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Kermode said,
You are ignoring that Paul wrote that Jesus "existed in the form of God" (Philippians 2:6), and God is always God. Verses 3-5 do NOT change verse 6.[/QUOTE\]

I'm going to keep telling you kermos, that you're ignoring scripture. I'm not going to ignore what Philippians 2:3-6 is saying just because you do and you want me to. You can think and say want you want about me, you're the one ignoring scripture, not me. So you go ahead and say I'm ignoring scripture, all that shows me is how much a hypocrite you are because you're ignoring what Philippians 2:3-6 is saying.
 

Kermos

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That was a predictable answer, doing your own thing like alittle Calvin spin off.

Your response is lacking scripture, so here is some scripture in this post for you to face.

mm, that's still a name I don't recognize from the Bible.

Here's a name from the Bible, Peter the Apostle, and Peter wrote that prior to being saved, people have a self will that brings the subject under damnation with the devil according to the Apostle Peter (2 Peter 2:2-9).

Here's another name from the Bible, Paul the Apostle, and Paul wrote that after being saved, people have a will that is bound under the loving control of God according to the Apostle Paul (Philippians 2:13).

Here's Paul from the Bible, again.
Overall, Paul uses free will as illusory instead of concrete in Philemon 1:14.- and this is the only occurrence of "free will" that I am aware of in the New American Standard Bible New Testament.

BeyondET, you do not have a free will, as described by Paul.

BeyondET, you do have a self will, as described by Peter.

BeyondET, you gleefully separate yourself from God's will and the Christ of us Christians Who says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation). We Christians in God's Spirit have a will bound in joy and love to God, as described by Paul.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam “not willingly” subjected creation to futility by eating of the tree forbidden for eating since Paul included all time prior to Paul’s birth by his writing “until now” (Romans 8:20-22).

“YHWH is righteous in all his ways and holy in all his works” (Psalm 145:17).

THE ALL KNOWING GOD (JOHN 16:30) GETS EXCLUSIVE CREDIT AND GLORY FOR MAN’S SALVATION (JOHN 3:3-8), AND MAN DOES NOTHING - NOT EVEN A CHOICE (JOHN 15:16).

The Redemption of Mankind through the Christ is certain, even before the foundation of the world (Ephesians 1:1-14).

"What I have said, that I will bring about; what I have planned, that I will do" (Isaiah 46:11).

No purpose of God's can be thwarted (Job 42:2).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.
 
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Kermos

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Yawn. So extremely predictable... I swear you calvinist all read from the same playbook, and it's not the Word
Go look at where Paul got this from, it's not an irresistible molding, just the opposite.

"Like clay in the hand of the potter, so are you in my hand, O house of Israel. and if that nation I warned repents of its evil, then I will relent and not inflict on it the disaster I had planned. and if it does evil in my sight and does not obey me, then I will reconsider the good I had intended to do for it."


Look! Free will!


Repentance Defined

THESE THREE QUESTIONS GET ANSWERED
  • What is repentance?
  • Who controls repentance?
  • How does a person repent?

LINGUISTIC DEFiNITION
Let us dig into the word "repent" which means "think differently afterwards". After we believers are born from above by the Holy Spirit (John 3:3), and in like manner given the mind of Christ (1 Corinthians 2:16). The Greek word metanoeó is the English word "repent" in Matthew 4:17. Let us obtain the definition of "repent".

Repent: think differently afterwards

metanoéō (from 3326 /metá, "changed after being with" and 3539 /noiéō, "think") – properly, "think differently after," "after a change of mind"; to repent (literally, "think differently afterwards") (def from 3340. metanoeó HELPS Word-studies section).The word "repent" does not mean "I change my mind" as asserted by too many people. Try reciting the words of Jesus, where He is commanding the people in Matthew 4:17, except, first, replace the word "repent" with "I change my mind", then, second, replace the word "repent" with "think differently afterwards". God does not change (Malachi 3:6), so this One True God Jesus commands repent.
Godly sorrow brings "thinking differently afterward" leading to salvation (2 Corinthians 7:10, so God's power generates this sorrow within the believers hence God calls it "Godly sorrow" thus illuminating and magnifying sin (Romans 5:20).

FIRST BIBLICAL CiTATION FOR REPENTANCE - A DEEP EXAMINATION
Here is the Christian teaching of 2 Corinthians 7:8-10. The passage (from the NASB which explicitly states that the NASB translators add bracketed words for clarity - so I have no problem removing the bracketed words from the NASB - but this is verbatim from the NASB):



  1. For though I caused you sorrow by my letter, I do not regret it; though I did regret it - [for] I see that that letter caused you sorrow, though only for a while -
  2. I now rejoice, not that you were made sorrowful, but that you were made sorrowful to [the point of] repentance; for you were made sorrowful according to [the will of] God, so that you might not suffer loss in anything through us.
  3. For the sorrow that is according to [the will] [of] God produces a repentance without regret, [leading] to salvation, but the sorrow of the world produces death.
Paul wrote a letter that exposed the Corinthian problem, see "I caused you sorrow by my letter" in verse 8.

As Paul writes further (in verse 9), the Apostle narrows the focus with "for you were made sorrowful according to God"; moreover, the Greek of ἐλυπήθητε γὰρ κατὰ Θεόν agrees with "for you were made sorrowful according to God". "ἐλυπήθητε" means "you grieved"/"you were made sorrowful", and "γὰρ" means "for", and "κατὰ" means "down"/"against"/"according to", and "Θεόν" means "God".

Paul does not leave it there, NO, rather Paul repeats himself in verse 10 to make it clear - in Jewish fashion of repeating a point for emphasis - Paul makes it clear in no uncertain terms "the sorrow that is according to God produces a repentance without regret, to salvation". That is Paul driving the Power of God exclusive role in man's salvation point home!

NOTICE THE KEYWORDS OF "ACCORDING TO GOD".

That sorrow, that repentance, is not of man's conjuring. See the keywords and absolute concept of "according to God"!

The scripture is devoid of "sorrow that is according to your free will" or "your free will to repent" or any indication about such a notion as man's free-will choice toward God.

The Apostle wrote "the sorrow that is according to God produces thinking differently afterward without regret" (2 Corinthians 7:10).



SCRIPTURAL CITATIONS ABOUT THE SOURCE OF REPENTANCE
BIBLE CITATION: Or do you think lightly of the riches of His kindness and tolerance and patience, not knowing that the kindness of God leads you to repentance? (Romans 2:4).

Notice that rebuke of people that despise repentance being from God!

BIBLE CITATION: When they heard this, they quieted down and glorified God, saying, "Well then, God has granted to the Gentiles also the repentance that leads to life." (Acts 11:18)

See that God grants repentance as testified by the disciples in Acts 11:18.

BIBLE CITATION: with gentleness correcting those who are in opposition, if perhaps God may grant them repentance leading to the knowledge of the truth, (2 Timothy 2:25)

Paul testifies that God grants "thinking different afterwards" in 2 Timothy 2:25.



THE THREE QUESTIONS ANSWERED
God grants repentance into people, as it is written; on the other hand, there is complete absence and silence in scripture for repentance as a work conjured up by man nor by man's "free will" nor "choice" nor "ability".

God grants repentance, and God acts for God's glory! Praise be to the Living God!

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam “not willingly” subjected creation to futility by eating of the tree forbidden for eating since Paul included all time prior to Paul’s birth by his writing “until now” (Romans 8:20-22).
“YHWH is righteous in all his ways and holy in all his works” (Psalm 145:17).
THE ALL KNOWING GOD (JOHN 16:30) GETS EXCLUSIVE CREDIT AND GLORY FOR MAN’S SALVATION (JOHN 3:3-8), AND MAN DOES NOTHING - NOT EVEN A CHOICE (JOHN 15:16).
The Redemption of Mankind through the Christ is certain, even before the foundation of the world (Ephesians 1:1-14).
"What I have said, that I will bring about; what I have planned, that I will do" (Isaiah 46:11).
No purpose of God's can be thwarted (Job 42:2).
Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.
 

Renniks

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Repentance Defined

THESE THREE QUESTIONS GET ANSWERED
  • What is repentance?
  • Who controls repentance?
  • How does a person repent?

LINGUISTIC DEFiNITION
Let us dig into the word "repent" which means "think differently afterwards". After we believers are born from above by the Holy Spirit (John 3:3), and in like manner given the mind of Christ (1 Corinthians 2:16). The Greek word metanoeó is the English word "repent" in Matthew 4:17. Let us obtain the definition of "repent".

Repent: think differently afterwards

metanoéō (from 3326 /metá, "changed after being with" and 3539 /noiéō, "think") – properly, "think differently after," "after a change of mind"; to repent (literally, "think differently afterwards") (def from 3340. metanoeó HELPS Word-studies section).The word "repent" does not mean "I change my mind" as asserted by too many people. Try reciting the words of Jesus, where He is commanding the people in Matthew 4:17, except, first, replace the word "repent" with "I change my mind", then, second, replace the word "repent" with "think differently afterwards". God does not change (Malachi 3:6), so this One True God Jesus commands repent.
Godly sorrow brings "thinking differently afterward" leading to salvation (2 Corinthians 7:10, so God's power generates this sorrow within the believers hence God calls it "Godly sorrow" thus illuminating and magnifying sin (Romans 5:20).

FIRST BIBLICAL CiTATION FOR REPENTANCE - A DEEP EXAMINATION
Here is the Christian teaching of 2 Corinthians 7:8-10. The passage (from the NASB which explicitly states that the NASB translators add bracketed words for clarity - so I have no problem removing the bracketed words from the NASB - but this is verbatim from the NASB):



  1. For though I caused you sorrow by my letter, I do not regret it; though I did regret it - [for] I see that that letter caused you sorrow, though only for a while -
  2. I now rejoice, not that you were made sorrowful, but that you were made sorrowful to [the point of] repentance; for you were made sorrowful according to [the will of] God, so that you might not suffer loss in anything through us.
  3. For the sorrow that is according to [the will] [of] God produces a repentance without regret, [leading] to salvation, but the sorrow of the world produces death.
Paul wrote a letter that exposed the Corinthian problem, see "I caused you sorrow by my letter" in verse 8.

As Paul writes further (in verse 9), the Apostle narrows the focus with "for you were made sorrowful according to God"; moreover, the Greek of ἐλυπήθητε γὰρ κατὰ Θεόν agrees with "for you were made sorrowful according to God". "ἐλυπήθητε" means "you grieved"/"you were made sorrowful", and "γὰρ" means "for", and "κατὰ" means "down"/"against"/"according to", and "Θεόν" means "God".

Paul does not leave it there, NO, rather Paul repeats himself in verse 10 to make it clear - in Jewish fashion of repeating a point for emphasis - Paul makes it clear in no uncertain terms "the sorrow that is according to God produces a repentance without regret, to salvation". That is Paul driving the Power of God exclusive role in man's salvation point home!

NOTICE THE KEYWORDS OF "ACCORDING TO GOD".

That sorrow, that repentance, is not of man's conjuring. See the keywords and absolute concept of "according to God"!

The scripture is devoid of "sorrow that is according to your free will" or "your free will to repent" or any indication about such a notion as man's free-will choice toward God.

The Apostle wrote "the sorrow that is according to God produces thinking differently afterward without regret" (2 Corinthians 7:10).



SCRIPTURAL CITATIONS ABOUT THE SOURCE OF REPENTANCE
BIBLE CITATION: Or do you think lightly of the riches of His kindness and tolerance and patience, not knowing that the kindness of God leads you to repentance? (Romans 2:4).

Notice that rebuke of people that despise repentance being from God!

BIBLE CITATION: When they heard this, they quieted down and glorified God, saying, "Well then, God has granted to the Gentiles also the repentance that leads to life." (Acts 11:18)

See that God grants repentance as testified by the disciples in Acts 11:18.

BIBLE CITATION: with gentleness correcting those who are in opposition, if perhaps God may grant them repentance leading to the knowledge of the truth, (2 Timothy 2:25)

Paul testifies that God grants "thinking different afterwards" in 2 Timothy 2:25.



THE THREE QUESTIONS ANSWERED
God grants repentance into people, as it is written; on the other hand, there is complete absence and silence in scripture for repentance as a work conjured up by man nor by man's "free will" nor "choice" nor "ability".

God grants repentance, and God acts for God's glory! Praise be to the Living God!

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam “not willingly” subjected creation to futility by eating of the tree forbidden for eating since Paul included all time prior to Paul’s birth by his writing “until now” (Romans 8:20-22).
“YHWH is righteous in all his ways and holy in all his works” (Psalm 145:17).
THE ALL KNOWING GOD (JOHN 16:30) GETS EXCLUSIVE CREDIT AND GLORY FOR MAN’S SALVATION (JOHN 3:3-8), AND MAN DOES NOTHING - NOT EVEN A CHOICE (JOHN 15:16).
The Redemption of Mankind through the Christ is certain, even before the foundation of the world (Ephesians 1:1-14).
"What I have said, that I will bring about; what I have planned, that I will do" (Isaiah 46:11).
No purpose of God's can be thwarted (Job 42:2).
Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will either.
Granting repentance doesn't equal no Free will.
If I grant you access to my drive way, you still have to decide to enter it not.