Was Jesus taste of death fair to the eternally damned?

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Butch5

Butch5
Oct 24, 2009
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Homer Ga.
DPMartin said:
The Jewish view in most cases, is taken under advisement usually in cases of tradition and culture that bring insight to a text, but its not always correct either, nor is the book of jubilee considered reliable, even amongst jews and especially amongst messianic jews. Undocumented or unreliable chain of copies in think is the issue. Unlike say, the books in the old testament.

If I had only give that as a single source you might have an argument. However, I also showed that it was an early Christian understanding also.

Also, where are you getting your bogus information from? If you are discussing what scripture says, then you should read before you make statements. Man is not only flesh but also spirit, as scripture verifies in the following.

Gen:6:3: And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years.
Prov:20:27: The spirit of man is the candle of the LORD, searching all the inward parts of the belly.
Eccl:3:21: Who knoweth the spirit of man that goeth upward, and the spirit of the beast that goeth downward to the earth?
Zech:12:1: The burden of the word of the LORD for Israel, saith the LORD, which stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundation of the earth, and formeth the spirit of man within him.[/qupote]

Nothing here says that man "IS" spirit. Man has a spirit, (breath of life) which if you'd read my posts you'd see I've acknowledged. However, there is a big difference between having a spirit (breath of life) and being a spirit. That the passages speak of the spirit "of" man shows that the spirit isn't the man

 
Oh, yea, the scriptures are written by jews, for jews, to jews. So yes it is the Jewish view. Especially the Old Testament. Which would include the Christian view seeing that the Christians do include the OT in their collections of scripture known as the bible.

And yet so many look at it from a Greek view.

And there is a spiritual death, haven’t you heard of the second death Jesus spoke of? What Adam died of that day was the life given him, he was removed from it, and left with the life of dust to dust and ashes to ashes. If you are removed from the world you have died in respect to the world. Adam was:
Lk:3:38: Which was the son of Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the son of God.
Hence his sin is a separation from God in whom he was a son of. Dead (lost) to the Life he was given and Jesus has restored.
No, there isn't a spiritual death. I notice you didn't present any Scripture for this spiritual death. There is none. I also notice that you've created another idea for death other than what can be found in Scripture.
 

Butch5

Butch5
Oct 24, 2009
1,146
32
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Homer Ga.
ewq1938 said:
I'm going to answer this post before being done with this. Firstly, you don't know my age.
That's true, however you indicated that you were older than another poster here




No it's not childish. It means the statement was more properly directed to you than me.
Really? Repeating my statement is mature?





That's a weak explanation. God said he would die the day he sinned, not before one of God's figurative days passes. Context proves God was speaking about a literal day for Adam. The Infinitive absolute further strengthens that Adam definitely died the same day he sinned.
This is mind boggling. I give you an argument based in Scripture and it's weak yet you give me an argument that is completely fabricates without any Scriptural support. Give one passage of Scripture that discussed spiritual death.



[qutoe]Yes I have, by sinning we can die. Have you not read:

Col_2:13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;[/quote]

I'm sorry, this dead in sins not spiritually dead. So, once again you've given me an inference. You've inferred that dead in sins means spiritually dead. I'm sure you've heard of metaphors.







The process of death isn't explained so that's a moot requirement. I have proven the soul lives on after physical death. This is a basic and foundational Christian concept which tells me you are in a different religion that doesn't understand what the scriptures teach on this subject.
Yes, it is explained in Scripture.

18 I said in mine heart concerning the estate of the sons of men, that God might manifest them, and that they might see that they themselves are beasts. 19 For that which befalleth the sons of men befalleth beasts; even one thing befalleth them: as the one dieth, so dieth the other; yea, they have all one breath; so that a man hath no preeminence above a beast: for all is vanity. 20 All go unto one place; all are of the dust, and all turn to dust again. 21 Who knoweth the spirit of man that goeth upward, and the spirit of the beast that goeth downward to the earth? (Eccl. 3:1 KJV)

We have it clearly describe what happens at death. Notice man and animal die the same way. They all return to dust. God told Adam, dust you are and to dust you shall return. He didn't say dust and a spirit you are.

It's not a fundamental Christian concept. It's a Greek concept that's why you can't find Scripture to post for it. Instead you have to infer it.





Again, another statement that is best directed to yourself.
Not at all. I'm willing to hear whatever someone has to say. I just require it be Scriptural and logical. if something is not logical then it is not rational.