What does "until the fullness of the Gentiles comes in" mean?

[JunChosen]

Hello

I would suggest that the way that Romans 11:25 be is being translated is not giving the true context of what Paul wrote.

Are you saying Romans 11:26(a) is NOT part of Scripture?

I said the above because my English Bible states that there are two Israel, one is "National Israel" and the other, the "Israel of God."

Here is how i understand this art of this verse:

until the fullness {with respect to time} of the {heathen} Gentiles has come in/been completed.​

What has been completed, the time period? I suggest it is the time from Abraham to Romans 11:25-26(a) is the period that has been spoken of.

If we consider the 2,300 year prophecy given in Daniel 8, the Little Horn is given an army on and off, as his need may be, over the 2,300 years of this prophecy to trample God's Sanctuary and His Earthly Hosts, i.e., Israel. The completion of this time period end when the kings of the earth are judged on the earth and the heavenly hosts are judged in heaven and they will be gathered together to be imprisoned in a pit for many days, i.e., 1,000, years, while waiting of the time of their punishment.

Where do you read a 1,000 years waiting imprisonment for punishment, Revelation 20:2-3? Sorry, that is NOT stipulated!

At the end of this present Age, we will see the Kings of the earth assembled at Armageddon to be judged by God/Jesus for their part in the trampling of God's sanctuary and His Earth Hosts over the set 2,300 years

Who are the Kings of the earth that are to be judged for their part in the trampling of God's sanctuary?

It is when Israel Cries out to God after the end of the fourth age of their time of the visitation of the fathers' iniquity, that God will turn once more to Gather Israel to Himself and will heal them and redeem them.

Israel, as a nation will never cry out to God and recognize Jesus as Messiah, except for a remnant! It is speaking about the Israel of God.

The fullness with respect to the number of gentiles coming into the Kingdom of God does not happen until after the redemption of the Israel occurs

When the curtain in the temple was torn in half it signaled the separation between God and National Israel.

and Israel begins to become a Kingdom of Priests, a Holy Nation and God's Possession among the Nations once more.

The only Israel that Scripture has stated that became as Kingdom of Priests and as a Holy Nation is the Israel of God (all believers).

Let them who have eyes to see and ears to hear come into God's understanding.

What you really mean to say is that those whom God has given "eyes to see and ears to hear" will come into God's understanding."

To God Be The Glory

 

[Jay Ross]

Are you saying Romans 11:26(a) is NOT part of Scripture?

I have gone back and corrected my post to say Romans 11:25:b which was the part that I provided my English paraphrase for. Your question is provocative in that you are making a suggestion which is contrary to my intent. In that sense this is a false argument.

I said the above because my English Bible states that there are two Israel, one is "National Israel" and the other, the "Israel of God."

Perhaps, but without the appropriate Biblical references, it is difficult to follow the thrust of your rebuttal, and as such this is a false argument by claiming wide support from the scriptures.

What has been completed, the time period? I suggest it is the time from Abraham to Romans 11:25-26(a) is the period that has been spoken of.

I do not know where you get that idea from. The time period is with respect to the Heathen Gentiles providing armies for the Little Horn to trample God's Sanctuary and His Earthly Hosts for a period of 2,300 years.

Where do you read a 1,000 years waiting imprisonment for punishment, Revelation 20:2-3? Sorry, that is NOT stipulated!

What I said was this: -

The completion of this time period ends when the kings of the earth are judged on the earth and the heavenly hosts are judged in heaven and they will be gathered together to be imprisoned in a pit for many days, i.e., 1,000, years, while waiting of the time of their punishment.

I was quoting Isiaih 24:21-22 and since Satan is one of the heavenly hosts that are judged in heaven and all of the heavenly hosts go with Satan into Imprisonment into the pit, i.e. The Bottomless Pit, when Satan is grabbed in Rev 20:1-3 and imprisoned for 1,000 years while awaiting the time of his punishment.

Your response above is misquoting what I had posted which is another form of a false argument..

Who are the Kings of the earth that are to be judged for their part in the trampling of God's sanctuary?

In Rev 16:12-16 we are told that after the three foul frog like spirits preform their signs and wonders which the whole world has already seen, that all of the Kings of the earth, at this time, will be assembled at Armageddon to be judged as is described in Isiaih 24:21-22.

Israel, as a nation will never cry out to God and recognize Jesus as Messiah, except for a remnant! It is speaking about the Israel of God.

In the Parable of the Manias in Luke 19, we are told that some of Satan's servants send a delegation after Satan when he left to go and get a kingdom, that they no longer wanted to have Satan as king over them. At that time Israel was a servant of Satan. In Luke 14:31-32 we are told that when the Kings of the earth are being Judged that Israel as a nation come to the conclusion that they could not possible beat the king, i.e. Jesus, who was judging the kings of the earth, in our near future, and so they seek his terms of peace for them.

When the curtain in the temple was torn in half it signalled the separation between God and National Israel.

That is not true. The tearing of the Temple's curtain confirmed that Israel had become separated from God because of their continual iniquities of Idolatrous worship. The separation began at the beginning of their third age of the existence of Israel, which was when Christ was born at the beginning of the fifth Age for mankind..

The only Israel that Scripture has stated that became as Kingdom of Priests and as a Holy Nation is the Israel of God (all believers).

Your statement above is one of envy of Israel because Jeremiah 31:31ff speaks of God making like new again with the nation of Israel, the Kingdom of Priests, a Holy Nation and God's Possession among the Nations Covenant which they had rejected previously at Mt Sinai.

Now Peter tells us that the "Christian Saints" will become a "Royal Priesthood" but this is very different to the covenant undertaking that God intend to bestow upon the Nation of Israel.

What you really mean to say is that those whom God has given "eyes to see and ears to hear" will come into God's understanding."

In the Book of Daniel, God tells Daniel to "shut up these words and seal the book until the time of the end," when understanding will come.

And yes, God is allowing His Saints who are prophets, whom He has called, to gain understanding of what is going to happen in our future.

Shalom

 

[Patrick1966]

Paul envisions the case whereby God is calling a full compliment of believers from both the Jews and the Gentiles.

I believe that God calls and gets ALL mankind to worship him.

 

[CadyandZoe]

I believe that God calls and gets ALL mankind to worship him.

Many are called, few are chosen.

 

[CadyandZoe]

Hello

I would suggest that the way that Romans 11:25b is being translated is not giving the true context of what Paul wrote.

Here is how i understand this art of this verse:

until the fullness {with respect to time} of the {heathen} Gentiles has come in/been completed.​

If we consider the 2,300 year prophecy given in Daniel 8, the Little Horn is given an army on and off, as his need may be, over the 2,300 years of this prophecy to trample God's Sanctuary and His Earthly Hosts, i.e., Israel. The completion of this time period ends when the kings of the earth are judged on the earth and the heavenly hosts are judged in heaven and they will be gathered together to be imprisoned in a pit for many days, i.e., 1,000, years, while waiting of the time of their punishment.

The time period of Israel walking contrary to God we are told in Hosea 6:1-3 before they are redeemed once more and healed is after the visitation of the fathers' iniquities on their children and the children's children during the third and the fourth ages of their existence.

At the end of this present Age, we will see the Kings of the earth assembled at Armageddon to be judged by God/Jesus for their part in the trampling of God's sanctuary and His Earth Hosts over the set 2,300 years.

It is when Israel Cries out to God after the end of the fourth age of their time of the visitation of the fathers' iniquity, that God will turn once more to Gather Israel to Himself and will heal them and redeem them.

The fullness with respect to the number of gentiles coming into the Kingdom of God does not happen until after the redemption of the Israel occurs and Israel begins to become a Kingdom of Priests, a Holy Nation and God's Possession among the Nations once more.

It is during the seventh age that the Gentiles will tug at the sleeves of the Israelite people and implore them to show them the way to Mt Zion.

Let them who have eyes to see and ears to hear come into God's understanding.

Shalom

Interesting proposal. Thanks for sharing this.

 

[Patrick1966]

We believe those times ended in 1914,

Are you JW?

 

[Patrick1966]

It is during the seventh age that the Gentiles will tug at the sleeves of the Israelite people and implore them to show them the way to Mt Zion.

Verse please?

 

[Robert Gwin]

Are you JW?

Yes sir, I worship and serve Jehovah exclusively Mat 4:10

 

[Jay Ross]

Verse please?

I was giving the verse from memory.

The verse I was trying to remember is: -

Zechariah 8:23 "Thus says the Lord of hosts: 'In those days ten men from every language of the nations shall grasp the sleeve of a Jewish man, saying, "Let us go/walk with you, for we have heard that God is with you."'"​

​

This is what I had said: -

It is during the seventh age that the Gentiles will tug at the sleeves of the Israelite people and implore them to show them the way to Mt Zion.

We must remember that God will be found in Mt Zion/Jerusalem during the Seventh Age during the time of the Great Harvest of Souls after God Gathers them, Israel, to Himself where they are living scattered throughout all of the earth.

 

[Cassandra]

The torment that will be found in Hell that is literally cast into the Lake of Fire will be greater then the Torment that Jesus endured on the Cross to try to keep you out of Hell.
The Torment that Jesus endured on the Cross, helps us to understand the misery, the level of misery.... that will be found in Hell and the Lake of Fire.

We will NEVER suffer, NEVER, as much as Christ suffered on the Cross--not only the physical pain, but the separation of He with His Father, taking the sins of the world . I can't believe you said that.

Also there s a second death. Not a second perpetual dying.

Remember John 3:16 "“For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.” So those that believe will not perish, but those that don't believe, will. Also Satan's lie to Eve was "Thou shall not surely die" There IS a second death, not a second dying.

As for the term forever and ever. According to Jude 1:7 :Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire. There is no eternal fire there now, but the result is there.

 

[Behold]

We will NEVER suffer, NEVER, as much as Christ suffered on the Cross--not only the physical pain, but the separation of He with His Father, taking the sins of the world . I can't believe you said that.
Also there s a second death. Not a second perpetual dying.

The born again will never face God as Judge, as He's already become "Abba' Father.
Its the UNBELIEVER, never born again who face....

John 3:36

And here is the 2nd Death explained for you.
-
The "2nd death" is simply the eternal continuation of the 1st Death found in Adam.

In other words.,, , "In Adam we all die" and in "Christ we are all made alive".

The 1st Adam brought sin and death to all mankind, and the 2nd Adam ( JESUS ) brings the offer of Eternal Life to all mankind, which ends "death".

Before Adam fell or "died", He was in Spiritual Union with God. When He "fell" , when he rebelled.... he lost spiritual union with God, that is defined as "death"...... so that is a loss of God's Eternal life that Adam had before he fell from it, or "died".

So, that is the 1st Death.....its spiritual separation from God.

= When a person is not born again...

Jesus said "you must be born again"< or you remain "in Adam", in "death".... that is to be spiritually separated from God.

To leave that "death" the 1st, is to be born again...... as then you have regained Spiritual Union with God, = Eternal LIFE that is found "in Christ".... that is the escape, by Spiritual BIRTH = FROM 1st Adam ""Death."""


The 2nd Death, is to remain in 1st Death, forever...after you literally die.
Literally... 2nd Death means, that you died on earth spiritually separated from God, never born again, in that First Death, and then you hit eternity. And in eternity there is no 2nd chance to be saved, to be born again OUT of 1st Death.
So, to now everlastingly remain in that spiritual separation from God, is the "2nd Death"....or a eternal spiritual separation from God.

That is the "2nd Death".

Where you will exist like that is ....>Hell, followed by the Lake of Fire.

How do you escape that eternal destiny that is originally designed "for the Devil and His angels"???

Jesus said..."you must be born again".......as that spiritual birth delivers you from "1st Adam death",....= restoring you back to Spiritual Union with God, which is... = Eternal Life "in Christ".

 

[APAK]

Romans 11:25
English Standard Version
The Mystery of Israel's Salvation
25 Lest you be wise in your own sight, I do not want you to be unaware of this mystery, brothers:[a] a partial hardening has come upon Israel, until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in.

Patrick I see three important words in this order from the title of your thread: 'gentile(s),' 'fulness' and 'when.' And then one must include the local context at least.

So first, what is a gentile/gentiles?

 

[JunChosen]

Yes sir, I worship and serve Jehovah exclusively Mat 4:10

If exclusively, what situation/condition was Jesus in when He uttered the words in Matthew 4:10?

And, why did Satan leave after hearing Jesus' words?

@Aunty Jane, if you are reading this post you may also reply.

 

[Aunty Jane]

If exclusively, what situation/condition was Jesus in when He uttered the words in Matthew 4:10?

I am not sure about what you are asking here...?
The words Jesus said in Matt 4:10 were part of his reply to three temptations when Jesus was newly baptized and perhaps in a somewhat vulnerable state since he needed to go into the wilderness to process what God’s spirit had revealed to him when “the heavens were opened” and he needed instruction and guidance from his Father on how to proceed in the following years of his role as Messiah.

Prior to his baptism Jesus was “the son of Joseph the carpenter” in the eyes of the people where he grew up. So there was nothing special about him, apart from the fact that he was sinless and had a perfect intellect, noted by the teachers at the Temple when he went missing at twelve years of age. (Luke 2:41-47)

Jesus always worshipped his Father as his God, before his earthly sojourn, and after his return to heaven.
In Revelation 3:12 Jesus referred to his Father as “my God” four times in that one verse, written long after his ascension.

And, why did Satan leave after hearing Jesus' words?

Because Jesus had answered every challenge with the words “it is written”, God’s word was the last word in every temptation, proving that perfect sinless humans can stand firm for the truth and obey their God even under the most trying circumstances. The devil had already managed to get two other sinless humans to defect to his lies and temptations, so Jesus would have been a real feather in his cap, but not this time. This showed that Adam and his wife had no excuse for what they did.

Jesus was faithful to his commission right to the end, and proved that the devil cannot force anyone to do anything......what a slap in the face it is when sinful humans do the same thing and keep their integrity to God no matter what the devil throws at them......this is why Job is in the Bible. He is the best example we have of a sinful human keeping his faith and integrity to his God, even when he did not know why he was suffering.

@Aunty Jane, if you are reading this post you may also reply.

Please tell me if I missed anything.....

 

[JunChosen]

I am not sure about what you are asking here...?

I apologize. English is my second language and at times I can be misconstrued. No it's not an excuse just a fact. Let me put my questions another way.

We know that Jesus is both 100% God (you may not though) and 100% human. Question, did Jesus speak as God or as man when He uttered Matthew 4:10?

And, why did Satan leave as soon as he heard the words of Jesus?

I pray that my intent is much clearer this time around.

 

[Aunty Jane]

I apologize. English is my second language and at times I can be misconstrued. No it's not an excuse just a fact. Let me put my questions another way.

We know that Jesus is both 100% God (you may not though) and 100% human. Question, did Jesus speak as God or as man when He uttered Matthew 4:10?

Can you show me a scripture that says Jesus was 100% human and 100% God? I have never found one.
Jesus spoke as the human he was, and in saying "it is written", he was quoting Deuteronomy 10:20.....
"You shall fear the Lord your God; you shall serve Him, and to Him you shall hold fast, and take oaths in His name." (NKJV)

To his Jewish monotheistic audience Jesus was referring to the only God they knew....Yahweh (Jehovah) Like the rest of the OT, Deuteronomy contained the divine name so they knew who he was speaking about....and it wasn't himself. Nowhere in all of scripture is Jesus ever called the Almighty, or referred to by the name Yahweh. He called himself "the Son of God" so I do not believe the scriptures ever say that Jesus was the Almighty God Yahweh.

His apostles were in no doubt as to who he was......
"For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as there are many gods and many lords), 6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and through whom we live". (1 Cor 8:5-6 NKJV) No Holy Spirit is mentioned here.

John 17:3 likewise.....
"And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent."
Again only the Father is the "true God" and Jesus was "sent" by him to carry out his commission. No mention of the Holy Spirit again....why is 'he' missing? Do we not need to know the holy spirit in order to gain eternal life?

And, why did Satan leave as soon as he heard the words of Jesus?

Because it was the authority of his Father's word that he referred to in each reply. Who can stand against its power?
"For the word of God is living and powerful, and sharper than any two-edged sword, piercing even to the division of soul and spirit, and of joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart." (Hebrews 4:12 NKJV)
Satan certainly showed his true colors by asking Jesus to worship him.

I pray that my intent is much clearer this time around.

It is, thank you for explaining.

 

[Robert Gwin]

If exclusively, what situation/condition was Jesus in when He uttered the words in Matthew 4:10?

And, why did Satan leave after hearing Jesus' words?

@Aunty Jane, if you are reading this post you may also reply.

I would imagine he was quite near death, but from his words you can see he maintained his integrity. No doubt satan realized that even in his weakened state, he would not be able to break his integrity, but from the parallel account in Luke 4:13, we can see that he was not through with Jesus.

 

[JunChosen]

@Aunty Jane, @Robert Gwin, and all JWs who posted here,,

I leave you with Scripture passages that are not in chronological order, but has a bearing in the subject at hand. It's up to you whether to believe or not.

Jesus came as the Savior of the world as we read in John 4:42.

Yet Isaiah 43:11 declares, "I, even I, am the LORD (Jehovah); and beside me there is no saviour."

IF THERE IS NO OTHER SAVIOR BESIDE JEHOVAH THEN JESUS HAS TO BE JEHOVAH GOD!!!

So true, as we continue to read, that the Father has declared to His Son in Psalms 45:6 and Hebrews 1:8, "Thy throne, O God is forever and ever..."

Do you folks know that when a verse is repeated it is driving home the point of it's import?

John 20:27-29 reads:

27 Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust [it] into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.
28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
29 Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed [are] they that have not seen, and [yet] have believed.

And here is the kicker of this whole matter....

Titus 2:10-13:

10 Not purloining, but shewing all good fidelity; that they may adorn the doctrine of God our Saviour in all things.
11 For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,
12 Teaching us that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and godly, in this present world;
13 Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;

AMEN!

To God Be The Glory

 

[Aunty Jane]

@Aunty Jane, @Robert Gwin, and all JWs who posted here,,

I leave you with Scripture passages that are not in chronological order, but has a bearing in the subject at hand. It's up to you whether to believe or not.

I guess we can reply with the same statement…..belief is what we all hold, but it is not necessarily an indication of truth….we all believe as we want to, according to how our hearts respond to the truth when we hear it. For some the truth is only what they want it to be, and no amount of persuasion will sway them….so be it. This is how God judges us....."out of the abundance of the heart the mouth speaks."

Jesus came as the Savior of the world as we read in John 4:42.

Yet Isaiah 43:11 declares, "I, even I, am the LORD (Jehovah); and beside me there is no saviour."

IF THERE IS NO OTHER SAVIOR BESIDE JEHOVAH THEN JESUS HAS TO BE JEHOVAH GOD!!!

That is flawed reasoning IMO, because we have to allow the entirety of scripture to tell us what truth is.

What does this word “savior” mean in the context of the whole Bible…..are their other “saviors” mentioned…..and if so in what capacity are they described as such?

The Bible does not limit the term “savior” to Jehovah. In the past, men whom God used in freeing his people Israel from oppression were called saviors. We read: “Jehovah raised a savior up for the sons of Israel that he might save them, Othniel the son of Kenaz, the younger brother of Caleb.” (Judges 3:9)

Then again we are told: “The sons of Israel began to call to Jehovah for aid. So Jehovah raised up for them a savior, Ehud.” (Judges 3:15)

So if Jehovah is a Savior who sends someone else to do the actual saving....both can be called saviors.
Like the emergency services involved with a rescue mission.....all are 'saviors' if all are contributing to saving someone from injury or death. From the call centre to the first responders, to the medical team at the hospital....

So true, as we continue to read, that the Father has declared to His Son in Psalms 45:6 and Hebrews 1:8, "Thy throne, O God is forever and ever..."

Do you folks know that when a verse is repeated it is driving home the point of it's import?

Perhaps some further study might be helpful here…..
Please note the context of Hebrews 1:8. In many translations, either in the main text or in the margin, the next verse adds some clarity….it reads, “God, your God, anointed you.” This makes it clear that the one addressed in verse eight is not God, but one who worships God and is anointed by him. Phrasing something from Hebrew or Greek to an English translation is sometimes ambiguous. It can be read more than one way in English.

Secondly, it should be noted that Heb 1:8-9 is quoting Psalm 45:6-7, which originally was addressed to a human king of Israel. Surely the writer of this psalm did not think that this human king was Almighty God and neither did the writer of Hebrews think that Jesus was either. (1 Cor 8:5-6)

John 20:27-29 reads:

27 Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust [it] into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.
28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
29 Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed [are] they that have not seen, and [yet] have believed.

If we look up the word “god” as it was understood in the Greek language, something interesting emerges….
According to Strongs Concordance, which is a well respected resource in Christendom, the word “theos” (god) is a general term used for...
“a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities" so the word "god" doesn't always relate just to Jehovah. It can also mean a person who is divinely authorized, or a person of divine origin as Jesus was.....actually Jesus was both.

If the apostles knew who their God was, (as they said collectively in 1 Cor 8:5-6) then Thomas' exclamation wasn't saying that he thought that Jesus was anything other than what he claimed to be..."the Son of God"....a divine one....one divinely authorized by God to forgive sins and to teach people about him.

And here is the kicker of this whole matter....

Titus 2:10-13:

10 Not purloining, but shewing all good fidelity; that they may adorn the doctrine of God our Saviour in all things.
11 For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,
12 Teaching us that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and godly, in this present world;
13 Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;

Again in Greek the phrasing is different to English so translation is at fault here....
Here is that same verse in the ASV.....
" Exhort servants to be in subjection to their own masters, and to be well-pleasing to them in all things; not gainsaying; 10 not purloining, but showing all good fidelity; that they may adorn the doctrine of God our Saviour in all things. 11 For the grace of God hath appeared, bringing salvation to all men, 12 instructing us, to the intent that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly and righteously and godly in this present world; 13 looking for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ".

Or verse 13 in the Kingdom Interlinear....
"awaiting τὴν the μακαρίαν happy ἐλπίδα hope καὶ and ἐπιφάνειαν manifestation τῆς of the δόξης glory τοῦ of the μεγάλου great θεοῦ God καὶ and σωτῆρος of Savior ἡμῶν of us Χριστοῦ of Christ Ἰησοῦ, Jesus".

So it doesn't really say what trinitarians want it to say.....this is speaking about "the great God" whom the apostles already acknowledged as "the Father"......"AND of the savior of us of Christ Jesus". Both Father and Son are mentioned here because salvation comes from the Father through the Son.

 

[Robert Gwin]

@Aunty Jane, @Robert Gwin, and all JWs who posted here,,

I leave you with Scripture passages that are not in chronological order, but has a bearing in the subject at hand. It's up to you whether to believe or not.

Jesus came as the Savior of the world as we read in John 4:42.

Yet Isaiah 43:11 declares, "I, even I, am the LORD (Jehovah); and beside me there is no saviour."

IF THERE IS NO OTHER SAVIOR BESIDE JEHOVAH THEN JESUS HAS TO BE JEHOVAH GOD!!!

So true, as we continue to read, that the Father has declared to His Son in Psalms 45:6 and Hebrews 1:8, "Thy throne, O God is forever and ever..."

Do you folks know that when a verse is repeated it is driving home the point of it's import?

John 20:27-29 reads:

27 Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust [it] into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.
28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
29 Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed [are] they that have not seen, and [yet] have believed.

And here is the kicker of this whole matter....

Titus 2:10-13:

10 Not purloining, but shewing all good fidelity; that they may adorn the doctrine of God our Saviour in all things.
11 For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,
12 Teaching us that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and godly, in this present world;
13 Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;

AMEN!

To God Be The Glory

Who is the savior Othniel Jun?Jud 3:9 And when the children of Israel cried unto Jehovah, Jehovah raised up a saviour to the children of Israel, who saved them, even Othniel the son of Kenaz, Caleb`s younger brother.