Wormwood
Chaps
I'm trying to understand, but it just doesnt make sense. I mean, ALL of the Bible is written FOR US and not TO US. The book of 1 Corinthians was written to the Church in Corinth, not to me or you. Yet it is for us. The Old Testament, for that matter, was written "for us" but not "to us." So, what separates a book being a New Covenant book and one being an Old Covenant book. Is it your opinion that the Jews do not exist under the New Covenant? Did James and Peter still operate under the Old Covenant because they were Jews and thus grace did not apply to them? Or did they just get it wrong? Did Jesus die only for Gentiles?Your conclusions are all wrong. The book of James is in the NT for us to understand that the Jews were still under the Law of Moses. It is written FOR US but NOT TO US.
Im not trying to condemn you, I am only trying to understand. So far, your ideas seem very scattered to me and I am trying to make sense of them.
Yes, I get that you are a dispensationalist and see that God works differently at different times. The idea that you would charge me with unbelief because I dont hold your dispensational presuppositions is sad. Anyway, I just dont think the Bible contradicts itself, nor do I think that God has a separate plan for the Jews as for the Gentiles. I think Paul is very clear that the Gospel is first for the Jew and then for the Greek. So either Peter and James got this Gospel wrong (since you think they taught legalism) and thus their writings are in error, or you believe the Gospel is only for the Gentiles. Is there another option? Please correct me if you see one.It looks to me that you are not RIGHTLY DIVIDING THE WORD of GOD. You are blending everything together and that is not what God intended when He sent Paul with the gospel of grace.
Well the Book of Ephesians says it was written to the Church in Ephesus. Does that mean its not to us? Where do you draw these lines? Peter, James and John wrote post resurrection about what Christ accomplished on the cross for our sake. They did not blend law and grace. They were Christians and they taught the good news of Jesus (which is what Gospel means). So either they got the good news wrong or you believe there are two Gospels. I dont see another option.You have a sheltered look of the OT. It is full of the refusal of the Jews to take God at His word. This fact has never changed and in fact you are also refusing to believe the word of God when you insist that the book of James was written to us when God's word says it was written to the Jew and never said it was written for the Gentiles.
No offense, but I am the one tryign to show that one Scripture does not negate another. You are the one arguing that James contradicts Paul and Paul negates James because they had different messages!Unless a person can see that God has dealt with mankind in different ways in different ages you will make one scripture negate another. In my opinion unless you can come to grips with this fact you will always show ignorance of God's word.