I have a different understanding of 1 John 3:9, in the context of the theme of the entire letter and in the context of chapter 3 itself.
John's purpose in writing his letter is stated in 1 John 2:1a: My dear children, I write this to you so that you will not sin. Throughout the letter, John exhorts his "little children" to avoid sin over 20 times in 5 chapters. I hope everyone agrees, this is the theme of the letter.
I agree.
John exhorts beievers not to sin...
but if they do sin, he provides a solution.
In chapter 3, John identifies his flock as Children of God:
3 See what great love the Father has lavished on us, that we should be called children of God! And that is what we are! ... 2 Dear friends, now we are children of God, and what we will be has not yet been made manifest. But we know that when Christ appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is. 3 All who have this hope in him purify themselves, just as he is pure.
We are Children of God - but WE ARE NOT YET LIKE CHRIST, i.e. pure. This is a future hope, and John exhorts his little children to PURIFY THEMSELVES until Christ appears. Still with me? Good.
Yes.
Still with you.
This is the easy part.
Now, on to Chapter 3 verse 9:
9 No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
Even though we are children and will not be mature until Christ returns, John is appealing to our identity as Children of God to not practice sin, because God's begotten sons and daughters do not and indeed cannot do that.
Right.
But some believe that what John is saying is that a believer CANNOT SIN.
Period.
It clearly states PRACTICES sin....
which is a life-style,
not a one time sin.
An appeal to identity. It took the modern world in which identity is everything for me to see that. I think this interpretation is logically consistent with 1 John 1:8: If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us. It also stops in its tracks the question, "What's the spec? What frequency of sinning counts as 'practicing sin'?" That's the kind of question a quality-control engineer would ask, and it's absolutely the wrong question.
I'm not too sure it's the wrong question.
It is important, it seems to me, that some boundary has to be set.
Some will always ask how many works it takes to be saved.
Silly question.
Some will ask how many sins will it take to be banished from the Kingdom.
Silly question.
If a person cannot distinguish between a sin....
and practicing sin...there's a problem with their undersanding of Christianity.
Paul said to cleanse ourselves...to purify ourselves.
It indeed is up to us to cooperate with God toward this effort...this is because
man retains free will even after salvation and God will force no one to remain a believer in Him.
Love must be freely given or it is not love.
Where is the line?
I could make a mistake and sin and steal one pen from a store....
if I steal a pen in every store I walk into .... it clearly shows a problem of the heart.
(I do believe we can grow to a point that sinning becomes ever less frequent)
I'd say:
Let's not make the effort to find out how many works are needed.
Let's not make the effort to find out how many sins will go into the life-style category.
Let's just love God and do our best.