What Is "Salvation" In 1 Corinthians 10?

[GracePeace]

More rambling

once again, Do you believe a person can be saved who has never believed?

Yes or no? I am sick of your games

Again, you are not thorough.
You're not going to get out of interacting with all of that.
If you do, I just won't talk with you anymore.
You're not going to have me invest in responding thoroughly so you can come in and flippantly wave it away.

 

[Episkopos]

The aspect of the verse that interests me is "I know and am persuaded in the Lord", not the "nothing is unclean in itself".
In other words, it seems like he's saying that he can do these things before and as unto the Lord, and he will not run away from the Lord, shrink back in shame (Heb 10:38, 39; 1 Jn 2:28), but others who try to do these things will run away from the Lord, shrink back in shame, because they're not abiding in the Lord.

So, at some point, he obtained this knowledge, this persuasion, before the Lord.
He says it is "in the Lord", so, connected to this, when a person has a legitimate "persuasion", then it is "in the Lord", and, therefore, breaking with this faith, or walking contrary to it, is sorta like unbelief "in the Lord", because the "doubt" (Ro 14:23) is directed toward "the Lord" from Whom the persuasion is emanating, so that when we submit to it, those are God's acts acting on us (starting in the heart and brain--the persuasion). This would make sense of how the person is "condemned" (Ro 14:23), whereas the one remaining in Christ is not condemned (Ro 8:1)--they're not remaining in Christ (1 Jn 2:28).

Salvation by faith is much more than people think.

I think Paul is talking about such things as meat sacrificed to idols. We could say in our time...secular songs. Sin is in the heart. A person can eat what is sacrificed to idols without any sin. Likewise a Christian can enjoy a song.... by say...Elton John (a gay man) without sin.

If the eye is pure than all is pure. In that regard nothing is evil of itself, unless used for the sake of darkness. Those who come to the light live in the light and are free to go through life without having to avoid every shadow of death. Light overpowers darkness.

 

[GracePeace]

Since believers who not only live by the Spirit but also walk by the Spirit Gal 5:25; Ro 8:1,4 by walking by faith are not in the flesh, but are "in Christ" Ro 7:1-6, 8:9 (but those who had believed, but are not keeping the two commands whereby we remain in Christ 1 Jn 3:23,24, are not remaining in Christ--eg, the Galatians Gal 1:6, 5:4--the last Adam, Who became a life-giving spirit 1 Co 15:45, but are walking after the flesh, and will, unless there's repentance, die Ro 8:12,13, and not be supplied with the eternal life 1 Jn 3:24 that is only located IN God's Son 1 Jn 5:11), our walking in faith powered by love Gal 5:6 (fulfilling 1 Jn 3:23) is not "work", because that is Christ living in us, so that "activity" cannot establish our righteousness Ro 10:3 (only activity proceeding from the flesh can establish our own righteousness, thus only that can be "work"), because walking in faith is categorically not our righteousness, but it is God's righteousness 1 Co 15:10, revealed from faith to faith Ro 1:17, 14:5,23, for His own glory (do all you do to God's glory--but if any activity at all is "work", then we could never glorify God, only ourselves, by proving we're righteous instead of proving God is righteous). We're in Christ, not in the flesh, so walking by faith is not "works", whereby our righteousness is established, but God's work whereby God's righteousness is established. Note: 1 Co 7 says whether a man lives the good life of the married man or the better life of the celibate man is his "gift", so "free gift of grace" is not nullified by the believer's walking in faith, but describes their walking in faith.

Therefore, to say that one must walk by faith to be found in Him, not having a righteousness of one's own, and that that is how they attain to the upcoming resurrection of the righteous Php 3, is not incorrect--it's not "adding works", because the "works" that establish one's own righteousness flow from the flesh, not from God Who authors the persuasions Ro 14:14; Gal 5:8 of the Believer who not only lives by the Spirit but also walks by the Spirit.

This also explains why famous Protestant preachers (who shall remain unnamed) are so confused, and talk about how they have to "remind" themselves of the Gospel: they're relying on one single command of 1 Jn 3:23, but, then, they're sinning, and they're feeling condemned Ro 14:23, so they have to go convince themselves they're still right with God. If they obeyed BOTH commands, they would ALREADY have confidence before God. It's a complete mess--and I believe it's why they are all addicted to porn. "I'm still going to heaven!" No, all lawless will be thrown out of the Kingdom by the angels.

 

[Eternally Grateful]

Again, you are not thorough.
You're not going to get out of interacting with all of that.
If you do, I just won't talk with you anymore.
You're not going to have me invest in responding thoroughly so you can come in and flippantly wave it away.

Thank you. Thank you for once again proving you have no idea, as usual when people ask you simple questions. You

1. prove you can not answer
2. Try to deflect and point in a different direction to take the focus off of you
3. Refuse to answer the question

But I am graceful. I am patient. So I will give you one more opportunity for you to explain yourself by answering one simple question

Are people who have never trusted God saved? Yes or no?

 

[Bob Estey]

In 1 Corinthians 10, the "salvation" of Christians is said to be the anti-type to the deliverance from the house of bondage, and from God's wrath there, which the Jews experienced.

1. The Jews spread the blood of a lamb on the doorposts of their homes, and were spared from God's wrath--we are spared from God's wrath by the blood Jesus (called "our Passover Lamb") shed on the Cross.
2. The Jews were baptized into Moses in the Red Sea--believers are baptized into Christ.
3. The Jews ate manna, spiritual food--believers eat the communion.

However, after having been saved, and after having been baptized, and after having eaten spiritual food, these very same "saved" people sinned, so they fell under God's wrath, and did not inherit God's promise (today, this relates to the eternal life that is in Christ).

Therefore, when people say they are "saved", do they take these things into consideration--that what "saved" means is they're saved from slavery to sin ("the house of bondage", "he who sins is a slave of sin"), but not that they cannot ever again face wrath if they continue sinning despite having been "saved"? Isn't this the selfsame teaching as Hebrews 10?

I think salvation is anytime the Lord rescues us from difficult situations we find ourselves in.

 

[GracePeace]

Thank you. Thank you for once again proving you have no idea, as usual when people ask you simple questions. You

1. prove you can not answer
2. Try to deflect and point in a different direction to take the focus off of you
3. Refuse to answer the question

But I am graceful. I am patient. So I will give you one more opportunity for you to explain yourself by answering one simple question

Are people who have never trusted God saved? Yes or no?

One of the many responses I had furnished as an answer to your "challenge" is still perfectly suited, and will suffice:

1. Again, you're not thorough. This is not at all an answer to every one of my answers.
2. Again, you answer matters before hearing them, as shameful fools do (Proverbs 18:13): I have said, endlessly, that 1 Corinthians 10 refers to a type, and a type is never its own anti-type (here, the anti-type would be men being saved by God's grace through faith in Christ's death and resurrection). I have also stated, in one of my answers to you, unbelievers are NOT saved in an anti-typical way. You are struggling to understand that parallel Paul teaches in 1 Co 10. You need to accept that before you can proceed.