When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

[Spiritual Israelite]

Because in Matthew 24, that's sunteleia.

No, sunteleia is not the moment in time that brings about the end of the age. That word does not refer to a moment in time but instead a period of time that leads up to "the end" (telos). The end of the age is a short time, but still not only one moment in time. It includes Jesus descending from heaven, the resurrection of the dead in Christ, the change of our bodies to immortality, our being caught up to Christ, the destruction of the wicked, and the resurrection of the wicked and being gathered for judgment. The end (telos) comes at the last moment of all those things that occur at the end of the age.

What adjoining verses in a single chapter does it go back and forth between?

The original manuscripts were not divided into chapters, so this is not a valid question to ask in relation to the point I'm making. There is no chapter break in the original manuscripts between what is written in Revelation 11:15-19 and what is written in Revelation 12, for example.

What global things? Everything in those verses can be explained locally historically.

Show me what you're talking about exactly, please. How can wars and rumors of wars between nations be signs of something that would happen locally in Judea or Jerusalem? How can famines, pestilences and earthquakes in various places be signs of a coming local event in Jerusalem? How is the preaching of the gospel to all nations a sign of a local event in Jerusalem?

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

FAMINES, PESTILENCES, EARTHQUAKES

The Bible records that there was famine “throughout all the world. . . in the days of Claudius Caesar” (Acts 11:28). Judea was especially hard hit by famine. “The disciples, every man according to his ability, determined to send relief unto the brethern which dwelt in Judaea” (verse 29). Paul’s instructions concerning this “collection [of fruit] for the saints” is recorded in First Corinthians 16:1-5; Rom. 15:25-28.

Historians such as Suetonius and others mention famine during those years. Tacitus speaks of a “Failure in the crops, and a famine consequent thereupon.” Eusebius also mentions famines during this time in Home, Judea, and Greece. Yes, there were famines in those years before the fall of Jerusalem.

Along with famines, Jesus mentioned pestilences; that is plagues, the spread of disease, epidemics. Famine and pestilence, of course, go hand in hand. When people do not have proper food or insufficient food, pestilence results. Suetonius wrote of “pestilence” at Home in the days of Nero which was so severe that “within the space of one autumn there died no less than 30,000 persons.” Josephus records that pestilences raged in Babylonia in A.D. 40. Tacitus tells of pestilences in Italy in A. D. 66. Yes, there were pestilences in those years before the destruction of Jerusalem.

During this period, Jesus said there would also be earthquakes in many places. Tacitus mentions earthquakes at Rome. He wrote that “frequent earthquakes occured, by which many houses were thrown down” and that “twelve populous cities of Asia fell in ruins from an earthquake.”

Seneca, writing in the year 58 A. D., said: “How often have cities of Asia and Achaea fallen with one fatal shock! how many cities have been swallowed up in Syria! how many in Macedonia! how often has Cyprus been wasted by this calamity! how often has Paphos become a ruin! News has often been brought us of the demolition of whole cities at once.” He mentions the earthquake at Campania during the reign of Nero. In 60 A. D., Hierapous, Colosse, and Laodicea were overthrown — Laodocia being so self-sufficient that it recovered without the Imperial aid furnished other cities. In 63 A. D., the city of Pompeii was greatly damaged by earthquake. There were earthquakes in Crete, Apamea, Smyrna, Miletus, Chios, Samos, and Judea. Earthquakes in divers places.

Great Prophecies of the Bible
Ralph Woodrow

What would be the point of Jesus mentioning all of those things happening in other parts of the world and then pointing out that those things don't mean the end of Jerusalem will have come yet? Those things have nothing to do with Jerusalem.

 

[quietthinker]

When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?​

Jesus was the embodiment of the Temple. Its furnishings and its rituals were symbols including the Lamb slain.
Jesus say's referring to himself, 'destroy this temple and I will raise it in three days' John 2:19 As per usual, he was misunderstood.

The Temple in Jerusalem was where the King of the Jews resided. This King even followed the Israelites through the Wilderness in their earlier wanderings from Egypt. This too was a symbol acted out in history.....just as it applies to us today.

When the Jews screamed, 'we have no king but Caesar' they officially disowned him, then they murdered him. (got rid of him)

The thick curtain which separated the two apartments in the temple was torn from top to bottom....also significant. It was not torn from bottom to top but rather from top to bottom. In other words God was revealing that access to the most holy place was now open through the body (his reality) of Jesus.

The Jerusalem Temple was/ is now redundant as the real temple (the way to access God) was resurrected and alive for evermore.

The Jews in their blindness continued their useless sacrifices till the structure was finally destroyed by the Romans in AD 70.

Today the Jews want to reinstate the structure and its services......yet they miss its point and carry on with their futile activities.
Unfortunately many who call themselves adherents of Jesus today, assume there is some significance in the Jews wanting to reinstate those old practices.
Are they also blinded and miss the point?