When does God actually literally come to the earth?
- Thread starter Truthnightmare
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Why didn’t he know it here….
32 But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father.
33 Take ye heed, watch and pray: for ye know not when the time is. KJV
BlessedPeace
Well-Known Member
Being he was God in flesh he was man as well.
"I know the plans I have for you..."
There is no thing Sovereign Omniscience does not know.
Are you saying when God was in the flesh (Jesus) he didn’t know being he was man also?
Zachariah.
Active Member
Son of Man is the reference to the flesh. Christ is a reference to the in dwelling spirit of the flesh.
The Son Of God is a modality of the Father.
The Father is a superconciouse being. The highest emination of God.
Well, there is the ol' standby, "But of that day and hour no one knows".
Much love!
Interesting…
So let me ask you… Who is going to judge?
Ecclesiastes 3:17
17 I said in mine heart, God shall judge the righteous and the wicked: for there is a time there for every purpose and for every work. KJV
Psalms 98:9
9 Before the LORD; for he cometh to judge the earth: with righteousness shall he judge the world, and the people with equity. KJV
Ecclesiastes 12:12-14
12 And further, by these, my son, be admonished: of making many books there is no end; and much study is a weariness of the flesh.
13 Let us hear the conclusion of the whole matter: Fear God, and keep his commandments: for this is the whole duty of man.
14 For God shall bring every work into judgment, with every secret thing, whether it be good, or whether it be evil. KJV
John 5:22
22 For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son: KJV
Zachariah.
Active Member
The force of Justice upholds judgment. Justice is the deductive aspect of reason. Logos.
The symbol of justice is the sword. Or sword and flame.
“Do not think that I have come to bring peace to the earth; I have not come to bring peace, but a sword. For I have come to set a man against his father, and a daughter against her mother, and a daughter-in-law against her mother-in-law; and one's foes will be members of one's own household” (Matthew 10:34-36).
Carrie; my mother was a mom to me..
Carrie was also a wife to my father…
Carrie was also a secretary at her job.
3 different positions, but one Carrie.
Is this Modalism?
BlessedPeace
Well-Known Member
Consider the enormity of God.
Jesus was divine.He was born sinless and yet he was a human male.
He knew of his source,his divine nature. ("I and the father are one..." "When you have seen me you have seen the father...")
And also,he was divinely conscious,as his God power would have it.
Imagine if Jesus gave a day and time for his second coming. What would ensue among the mortals hearing that and knowing they would perish before that day and time, were it centuries in the future.
Zachariah.
Active Member
The creative aspect of the Logos (deductive reasoning) is neither The Son or the Father.
The Logos is divided into two parts as it is the first emination of the unfathomable God, The Monad. These two aspects of the Logos, deductive and inductive reasoning, are the generative principles. One being of the corporeal realm and the other the incorporeal. Meaning deductive reasoning is the Logos and generative principle of creation and inductive reasoning Is the Logos and generative principle of the unseen.
1. We have God. Singular.
2. Logos. Duel.
3. Trinity. Triune.
Emanated in that order. That is why 2 follows 1 and 3 follows 2.
The Father, Son and Holy Spirit are your Trinity.
Christ is the inductive or "incorpereal" Logos.
Justice is your deductive or "corpereal" Logos which the Christ character also takes the roll of.
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Well, you might have known this was coming. So tell me, in you analogy using Carrie in three roles, she is ONE person. Do you subscribe to the same one and only one person for God, or two or more person 'in/inside' God? And if it's one person as Carrie, is it the Father God only?
Basically yes, I look at it in a simple form.
If I feel up my bathtub full of water, the water in the tub is God.
If I take a coffee cup and scoop up a cup of water from the tub, the water inside the coffee cup is God.
Now I can’t take a bath in the coffee cup like I can the tub, but both are still God.
And if I pour the water from the coffee cup back into the tub, because the coffee cup has fulfilled its purpose, I am left with God.
Augustin56
Well-Known Member
You're demonstrating the problem with self-interpretation of Scripture, taking it out of context. Scripture doesn't mean what you want it to mean. It means what the author intended it to mean in the context he intended it.
Jesus going away was Him ascending to Heaven. Not forever and in all ways, but generally speaking. He is alway present everywhere, spiritually speaking. Physically speaking, He is made present at the altar of every Catholic Mass at the consecration of the Eucharist, by the power and authority of Jesus Christ.
Really, yet you find a way to insert Catholicism into a scripture that bears it not.
John 16:7
ἀλλ’ ἐγὼ τὴν ἀλήθειαν λέγω ὑμῖν· συμφέρει ὑμῖν ἵνα ἐγὼ ἀπέλθω· ἐὰν γὰρ μὴ ἀπέλθω, ὁ παράκλητος οὐκ ἐλεύσεται πρὸς ὑμᾶς· ἐὰν δὲ πορευθῶ, πέμψω αὐτὸν πρὸς ὑμᾶς
Nothing about Catholic Mass at the consecration of the Eucharist.
Augustin56
Well-Known Member
It was the Catholic Church that gave us the New Testament and decided which of the two versions of the Old Testament to use. Wouldn't you think it should be the same Catholic Church that can tell us what the Catholic authors meant when they wrote the New Testament? Or are you claiming that someone coming along 16 centuries or later, reading a translation of the Bible through their own 21st century mind, suddenly knows different?
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