Keiw
Well-Known Member
2Cor 4:4 The ( Ho) god( Theos= how that paragraph begins--Otherwise in your reasoning it would start-The God capitol G.
Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.
You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
2Cor 4:4 The ( Ho) god( Theos= how that paragraph begins--Otherwise in your reasoning it would start-The God capitol G.
The use of capital letters is misleading, because there is no upper and lower case in Greek….so using capital ”G” when the definite article is missing is mistranslation.If your reasoning is correct then 2Cor 4:4 would start-The God capitol G.
The capitalizations are done by the translators, they're are not in the original. Just like "other" is not in 1 Col. 1:162Cor 4:4 The ( Ho) god( Theos= how that paragraph begins--Otherwise in your reasoning it would start-The God capitol G.
There is one God to all the Father( 1 Cor 8:6) --proves trinity religionssssssssssssssssssss are full of it. There is only 1 God.The use of capital letters is misleading, because there is no upper and lower case in Greek….so using capital ”G” when the definite article is missing is mistranslation.
It isn’t as if they do not know the meaning of the word “theos” as is demonstrated in this one verse….it’s the use of the capital letter that reinforces the meaning…in how they render these two persons with one descriptor, but speaking about two entirely different entities.
“in whose case the god (ho theos) of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelieving so that they might not see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God (ho theos). (NASB)
”ho theos” is used twice in that verse…once to describe “THE god” of this world….and Christ who is the image of THE God, “ho theos”….so this demonstrates that the translators know which is which.
We see this again in John 10:31-36…
”The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?” The Jews answered Him, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God.” (theos, not ho theos) Jesus answered them, “Has it not been written in your Law, ‘I ’? If he called them gods, (theos) to whom the word of God (ho theos) came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’ (ho theos)? (NASB)
The use of the capital “G” is again misleading. The Jews never accused Jesus of being “God“ but of claiming that God was his Father. (John 5:18) Anxious to pin a charge of blasphemy on him they resorted to distorting the truth.
If Jehovah himself can call human judges “gods” (theos) then the meaning of the word is dictated by context and the definite article. It’s amazing what a capital letter or even a misplaced comma can do to change the meaning of a sentence….
Relying on biased translation is a mistake….we should do our own homework. Just look these verses up in a Greek Interlinear…..
ALL translations with Gods name removed against his will are misleading all to LOSE.The capitalizations are done by the translators, they're are not in the original. Just like "other" is not in 1 Col. 1:16
Correction, Jesus was speaking to the Pharisees when He spoke those words.yet Jehovah/Yahweh is “THE God” of Jesus and his disciples…the only God that the Jews were told to serve.
Keiw, try and stay on topic.ALL translations with Gods name removed against his will are misleading all to LOSE.
This is similar to the Hebrew equivalent of "elohim" where it was used in Ps 82:6 to convey it to those to whom the word came. The important thing as it is with elohim, is context. In Jn 1:1 it clearly refers to the creator. "all things were made by him" and equality with the Father " the Word with God and the Word was God". In 2 Cor 4:4 is used as a pagan reference similar to the Athenian discourse in Acts 17. The first three rules of interpretation 1) context 2) context 3) contextWhat do you do with 2 Corinthians 4:4, where Satan is referred to as "ho theos"?
View attachment 64390
i explained exactly who they are-NONE using altered translations know Gods truth.Keiw, try and stay on topic.