BreadOfLife
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- Jan 2, 2017
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Uhhhh, no.Remember the word is 'Office', not bishop. Besides you are making up rules as you go. Nowhere does it say that that office wouldn't have those requirements 'After that'.
The word used in Acts 1:20 is "Bishopric" (Episkopay).
And WHO said the Church was Israel??The Church is not Israel.
The Church is the FULFILLMENT of Judaism.
The three levels of Priests of Judaism are perfected in Christ's Church.
WRONG.Yes, but these are not 'successive'. Their qualifications (e.g. elders) were different than that listed in Acts 1.
Your Jude 1:11 reference is bogus...
Woe unto them! for they have gone in the way of Cain, and ran greedily after the error of Balaam for reward, and perished in the gainsaying of Korah. Jude 1:11
Yes, and Jesus is the fulfillment of types and prophecies.
The office of Bishop IS successive. Not only do we see this in Acts 1 with the succession of Judas's Bishopric and described in 2 Tim. 2:1-2, we also see it in the first century of the Church.
In his treatise, Against Heresies (180 AD), Irenaeus lists the succession of ALL of the Bishops of Rome from Peter all the way to his own time a century later.
When James was martyred in Jerusalem - Simeon succeeded his Bishopric in that city.
Ignatius of Antioch succeeded Peter, who went to Rome.
The idea that there simply ceased to be a Bishop in a certain region after the death of a previous Bishop is ludicrous and historically-bankrupt.
Finally - as to the reference in the Epistle of Jude - it is an illustration of the Ministerial priesthood of the New Covenant.
In this Epistle - we read the warning about those who would usurp Church Authority by assuming the ministerial priesthood without the Church’s consent (Jude 1:11). In this passage he compares them to the rebellion of Korah and their subsequent punishment (Numbers 16:1-35; 31:16).