Whose lying?

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DPMartin

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In two places Jesus said He only came to the lost sheep of Israel (Matt. 10:5-7 and Matt. 15:23-24)

Did Jesus lie? Or is main street Christianity lying?

In the book of James 1.1 it tells us who James is writing to.

Did James lie? Or is main street Christianity lying?

In Paul’s epistles he states that the gospel he is preaching was “HIDDEN IN GOD” and revealed to him, by revelation, and is about God’s grace offered to man; if the man has faith to believe it. Grace excludes the law since it can not be earned. Under grace the law has been satisfied because Jesus atoned for, paid for, all the sins the mankind committed in the past, present, and future. For these the law is no longer in effect since Jesus’ shed blood paid the price for them.

The above is what Paul says, his gospel was hidden in God.

Is Paul lying? Or is main street Christianity lying?

The answers will tell a lot.

this I can tell, it seems that your are lying about being a Christian.

H. Richard why don't you just be honest and say you are not a Christian? no sense in denying that you are not, you broadcast the fact that your are not really a Christian at just about every post.
 

101G

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According to Webster's dictionary a partaker is one who has a share or participates in, and that describes exactly what God did in Jesus Christ. We just haven't seen the end of it yet.
#1. Partaker: G2841 κοινωνέω koinoneo (koy-no-neh'-o) v.
1. to share with others (objectively or subjectively)
[from G2844]
KJV: communicate, distribute, be partaker
Root(s): G2844

G2844 κοινωνός koinonos (koy-no-nos') n.
1. a sharer, i.e. associate
[from G2839]
KJV: companion, X fellowship, partaker, partner
Root(s): G2839

#2. Took Part: G3348 μετέχω metecho (met-ekh'-o) v.
1. to share or participate
2. (by implication) belong to, eat (or drink)
[from G3326 and G2192]
KJV: be partaker, pertain, take part, use
Root(s): G3326, G2192

Study these two definition above carefully.

we see that the Lord Jesus/God/Spirit/ in his diversified state having a body, Water/flesh, & bone, with blood to express himself in, or manifest in. Hebrews 1:14 "Forasmuch then as the children are partaker of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil". the partaker of flesh and blood?. first you have to understand the words, "Partaker", and "took part". if you will notice the human children was partaker of flesh and blood. but when speaking of Christ, it said that he, "took part". which is different. the Greek word for partaker is, G2841 κοινωνέω koinoneo, "to have a share of, to share with, take part in", or to fully share. as unto Adam, his nature of flesh and blood. but when we come to Christ, he "took part of the same", not fully, which is the word, G3348 μετέχω metecho, only a part. meaning, to share or participate in, or pertain. Question what part did he take and what part he didn't take. Observantly, he took on flesh, with blood. the Lord Jesus blood was not contaminated with Joseph or Mary or any other human blood. the Lord Jesus flesh was made just “like” Adam flesh, but without Adams contaminated blood. now if you think that Mary who carried and birth that flesh, that her blood was in him, absolutely not. it is an establish fact that the mother's blood is neither the source nor the supply of the unborn child blood. So the conception was placed or conceived in Mary’s womb by the Holy Spirit. And to be sure that our Lord only “TOOK PART” IN OUR HUMANITY, he was made, in the LIKENESS, scripture, Philippians 2:7 "But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men". he did not emanate from Mary. If so please give book chapter and verse please.
 

101G

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no. We find the gospel in parts through the Old Testament and most clearly in chapter 53 of the book of Isaiah, but the Holy Spirit couldn't be given to indwell men permanently until after the redemption price was paid in our Lord's precious blood.
you said, "most clearly in chapter 53 of the book of Isaiah" was Abraham before Isaiah?, let the record speak. Galatians 3:8 "And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed".

and unto Abraham was the Promise by Faith was made. and the reason why his name was change because he was made the father of MANY NATIONS.
 

michaelvpardo

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#1. Partaker: G2841 κοινωνέω koinoneo (koy-no-neh'-o) v.
1. to share with others (objectively or subjectively)
[from G2844]
KJV: communicate, distribute, be partaker
Root(s): G2844

G2844 κοινωνός koinonos (koy-no-nos') n.
1. a sharer, i.e. associate
[from G2839]
KJV: companion, X fellowship, partaker, partner
Root(s): G2839

#2. Took Part: G3348 μετέχω metecho (met-ekh'-o) v.
1. to share or participate
2. (by implication) belong to, eat (or drink)
[from G3326 and G2192]
KJV: be partaker, pertain, take part, use
Root(s): G3326, G2192

Study these two definition above carefully.

we see that the Lord Jesus/God/Spirit/ in his diversified state having a body, Water/flesh, & bone, with blood to express himself in, or manifest in. Hebrews 1:14 "Forasmuch then as the children are partaker of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil". the partaker of flesh and blood?. first you have to understand the words, "Partaker", and "took part". if you will notice the human children was partaker of flesh and blood. but when speaking of Christ, it said that he, "took part". which is different. the Greek word for partaker is, G2841 κοινωνέω koinoneo, "to have a share of, to share with, take part in", or to fully share. as unto Adam, his nature of flesh and blood. but when we come to Christ, he "took part of the same", not fully, which is the word, G3348 μετέχω metecho, only a part. meaning, to share or participate in, or pertain. Question what part did he take and what part he didn't take. Observantly, he took on flesh, with blood. the Lord Jesus blood was not contaminated with Joseph or Mary or any other human blood. the Lord Jesus flesh was made just “like” Adam flesh, but without Adams contaminated blood. now if you think that Mary who carried and birth that flesh, that her blood was in him, absolutely not. it is an establish fact that the mother's blood is neither the source nor the supply of the unborn child blood. So the conception was placed or conceived in Mary’s womb by the Holy Spirit. And to be sure that our Lord only “TOOK PART” IN OUR HUMANITY, he was made, in the LIKENESS, scripture, Philippians 2:7 "But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men". he did not emanate from Mary. If so please give book chapter and verse please.
who said that He emanated from anyone? Scripture says simply that He was born of a virgin and therefore flesh of her flesh, blood of her blood. That is what it means to be born and its been that way since the birth of Cain.
 

michaelvpardo

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you said, "most clearly in chapter 53 of the book of Isaiah" was Abraham before Isaiah?, let the record speak. Galatians 3:8 "And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed".

and unto Abraham was the Promise by Faith was made. and the reason why his name was change because he was made the father of MANY NATIONS.
you do know that gospel means good news, right?
 

H. Richard

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GINOLJC, first thanks for the response. at least you did read it, but yet not understand it. anyway,..
"
ERROR all of the OT in not a history of the Jewish. it a History of People and their interaction with EACH other. there is nothing special about the Jews. as a matter of fact people was keeping covenant with God before there was a nation called Jews. example. Moses Wife Zippora, saved him from death when she circumcise their son which Moses had no clue to do before he went back to Egypt to free his fellow brother from slavery. this is found in Exodus 4:21-26.

and to address your blending that you accuse me of, let's check the record, Isaiah 14:1 "For the LORD will have mercy on Jacob, and will yet choose Israel, and set them in their own land: and the strangers shall be joined with them, and they shall cleave to the house of Jacob". here stranger are H1616 גֵּר ger (gare), meaning 1. a guest. STOP, is not the gospel an INVITATION?, yes. Guest are invited. don't miss the point of Christianity. and this Gospel is to be preached to all, or simply, invite all.

so what you said is inexcusable.
***
The strangers that will be joined with then are not those saved under grace as you seem to indicate. Those under grace are not associated with the Jewish kingdom on this earth.

Your continuing to answer whose lying is obvious. I bring up three places where main stream Christians continually lie about obvious statements by rationalizing that other scriptures say these statement are not true. You want to hide behind other scriptures so that you say neither are lying. But the facts remain, The main stream Christian churches just want to ignore them.

Your trying to play the victim of my abuse is laughable. Show me where Jesus taught that we are no longer under the law. You can't do it and you know it. Jesus came to the the Jews and what He said was to the Jews who were under the law of Moses only. He did not come to the Gentiles. Jesus, from heaven, saved Paul and sent him with a message of grace to the world. The law has been satisfied by the shed blood of Jesus on the cross. But the main stream Christian Churches don't want people to know it. You write long sermons so that you do not have to see the obvious that either Jesus, James, and Paul lied or the main stream Christian Churches are.

In the garden God said if you eat of it you will die. But Satan said they would be like god. They choose to believe Satan and today people are beleving the lies men make up to hide the truth.
 

H. Richard

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Jesus said that He was sent not that He simply came. He understood His "mission" according to all that was said of Him in the scriptures (old testament), and He said that the works that He did were those that the Father showed Him. In other words, He knew His purpose, He knew that His destination in ministry was the cross, He knew the promises of God of a restoration of His own glory, but what He did and what He said were things given to Him by the Father to do and to say to satisfy the requirements of God's covenant of law and to establish the new covenant promised by God through the prophets, the covenant of peace (with God). The New Testament teaches us that God emptied Himself of His divine attributes in order to take the form of a man and of a servant so that He might sympathize with us in our frailties and weaknesses, and be an advocate for us in judgment who understands our nature. Jesus had to be entirely human to represent us and yet without sin, to reveal what we could be (without sin.) When He did those things which scripture attributes to God, such as walking on water and raising the dead, He did them as signs of His divinity and through the power of His Spirit (the Holy Spirit or Spirit of Christ.) This is how His saints are meant to walk as well; that is, to be informed by scripture of God's will for them and to do those things which they are shown by Him through the working of the Holy Spirit within them. There's nothing contradictory about Jesus' words or actions, but timing was everything and He understood this very well. After the Pharisees and rulers decided to kill Jesus, Jesus refused to travel with His brothers and sisters to Jerusalem for one of the feasts, saying that His time had not yet come (presumably the time of His humiliation.) Yet He did go to that feast and taught there when the time was right. There is a time and a season for all things including judgment and salvation.
***

What is missing in your reply is "WHOSE LYING".
 

101G

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The strangers that will be joined with then are not those saved under grace as you seem to indicate. Those under grace are not associated with the Jewish kingdom on this earth.
please give scripture for your support. thanks in advance
 

H. Richard

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please give scripture for your support. thanks in advance
***

Eph 1:10
10 that in the dispensation of the fullness of the times He might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven and which are on earth — in Him.
NKJV
This does not mean He brings them together on earth or heaven. That is just an assumption that the main stream Christian church want to say. There are two separate places mentioned.

Eph 3:14-15
14 For this reason I bow my knees to the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ,
15 from whom the whole family in heaven and earth is named,
NKJV


Phil 3:20
20 For our citizenship is in heaven, from which we also eagerly wait for the Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ,
NKJV
If you don't see that this answers your question then just ignore it. I will take it no further since you will not answer the OP question..
 

H. Richard

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this I can tell, it seems that your are lying about being a Christian.

H. Richard why don't you just be honest and say you are not a Christian? no sense in denying that you are not, you broadcast the fact that your are not really a Christian at just about every post.
***
I am most certainly a child of God, Made one by faith in Jesus' shed blood on the cross.

Rom 14:4
4 Who are you to judge another's servant? To his own master he stands or falls. Indeed, he will be made to stand, for God is able to make him stand.
NKJV

All you want to do is assassinate my character because you don't like what i write. It shows who you are. You are attacking me personally to try and get others to ignore what I write because it makes you uncomfortable. Shows your love for others doesn't it.
 

101G

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Eph 1:10
10 that in the dispensation of the fullness of the times He might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven and which are on earth — in Him.
NKJV
This does not mean He brings them together on earth or heaven. That is just an assumption that the main stream Christian church want to say. There are two separate places mentioned.
your first error, Colossians 1:12 & 13 "Giving thanks unto the Father, which hath made us meet to be partakers of the inheritance of the saints in light Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness, and hath translated us into the kingdom of his dear Son". the Son is God, and the Kingdom of God is on EARTH. so that's strike #1.
Eph 3:14-15
14 For this reason I bow my knees to the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ,
15 from whom the whole family in heaven and earth is named,
NKJV
in Heaven?, scripture, Ephesians 2:6 "And hath raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus". in Heaven, YES in Christ Jesus. that's strike #2. don't let it be a third.
Phil 3:20
20 For our citizenship is in heaven, from which we also eagerly wait for the Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ,
NKJV
If you don't see that this answers your question then just ignore it. I will take it no further since you will not answer the OP question..
well take it no further.. LOL, this just enforce my #2 answer, for we sit in Heavenly places in Christ Jesus. how Ignorantly you use scriptures. well that's strike #3. see, HR, when people just run their mouth without scripture they are fine. that's why I send then to the scriptures and stop their mouth, as you say "in answering the OP", yes, stop their mouth from lying. the church at Ephesus is in session. Revelation 2:1 "Unto the angel of the church of Ephesus write; These things saith he that holdeth the seven stars in his right hand, who walketh in the midst of the seven golden candlesticks; I know thy works, and thy labour, and thy patience, and how thou canst not bear them which are evil: and thou hast tried them which say they are apostles, and are not, and hast found them liars".

so good day to you.
.
 

101G

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I have no proof but many have said that the blood of a child comes from the father only. Perhaps someone would research this for us.
you are right you have no proof. second, you said"the blood of a child comes from the father only". now HR I'm going to give you another chance. the Father of a Child from, AS YOU SAY, the child blood come from is the conceiver right. scripture, Matthew 1:19 & 20 "Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily. But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost". so HR, question, "Who is the Father of that Child that was conceived in Mary?". was it the Holy Ghost, or the one who most call the Father, the first PERSON in the trinity? well....... (smile) I can't waite for this answer. Remember the conceiver is the Father of a child........ can't wait.
 

101G

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well I see there is no answer here. just to help one out, remember, God who is Spirit have no blood.
 

H. Richard

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well I see there is no answer here. just to help one out, remember, God who is Spirit have no blood.
This earth was formed by the Holy Spirit. It is reasonable that The Holy Spirit could make blood that is not from a man or women.

Your refusal to answer the OP shows who you are. Did Jesus lie? Did James lie? Did Paul lie? If none of them lied then why don't you believe them? That is the OP which you wish to bury under a barrage of garbage about me. I am not the subject of this thread.

So you want to give me another chance. Just who do you think you are, God?
 

101G

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The Holy Spirit could make blood that is not from a man or women.
thank you, how hard was that? so was #1. was our Lord conceive by any human? answer NO. #2. it was the HOLY SPIRIT who gave the first man his blood. now #2. is the Holy Spirit the Father yes or no.