Please can you tell me where the bible says we do not sin.And there you have it. Though we know God says we do not sin ,those who are in Christ .
When God sees us as sinless,how do we insist we are still sinners? After all he did for us?
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Please can you tell me where the bible says we do not sin.And there you have it. Though we know God says we do not sin ,those who are in Christ .
When God sees us as sinless,how do we insist we are still sinners? After all he did for us?
Sure, but are you sinless on a daily practical basis? How often do you read the Bible? When was the last time you lied?God sees us as sinless
Yes.Sure, but are you sinless on a daily practical basis? How often do you read the Bible? When was the last time you lied?
I read the Bible every day. Feel free to join my daily schedule. See Familiarize yourself with the whole Bible by daily reading.Yes.
This morning.
Can't remember. Not in the last decade at least.
And you?
I answered your Bible reading question already. Why do you not accept it?I read the Bible every day. Feel free to join my daily schedule. See Familiarize yourself with the whole Bible by daily reading.
This is the 2nd time I am asking: How often do you read the Bible?
Do you know of any sinless persons like you?
When was the last time you did not straightforwardly answer a question that people had to ask you twice? Are you hiding something?
You know that God will judge the words of your mouth? See if you can give me the verse reference for this one?
We are no longer sinners if we are in Chris: we no longer have a sinful nature. Because when we are in Christ we are being changed into His sinless nature - but it can be a long process.And there you have it. Though we know God says we do not sin ,those who are in Christ .
When God sees us as sinless,how do we insist we are still sinners? After all he did for us?
Interesting topic.On both occasions, they are the same Greek G1080, sharing the same lexical meaning. They differ in tenses. One is in perfect tense; the other is in the aorist.
This is the 3rd and the last time I ask: How often do you read the Bible?I answered your Bible reading question already. Why do you not accept it?
Or bodies are corrupt and therefore cannot inherit the kingdom of God. I have often seen that verse that he who is born of God does not commit sin to bash people that are of the belief they should confess themselves as sinners. It is also stated in the parable of the tax collector and Pharisee that he who confesses he is a sinner to God is more justified than him who thinks he is righteous.1 John 1:
But then only 2 chapters later, King James Bible 1 John 3:
commit
Verb - Present Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular
Koine-Greek.com:
The Greek present tense carries a sense of repetitive or routine action.
My paraphrase: Anyone born of God will not routinely practice sin as a matter of fact.
KJV 1 John 3:
English Standard Version:
Two chapters later, this concept is revisited by John in 1 John 5:
The main verb is:
does not keep on sinning
ἁμαρτάνει (hamartanei)
Verb - Present Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular
Strong's 264: Perhaps from a and the base of meros; properly, to miss the mark, i.e. to err, especially to sin.
The secondary verb is the participle:
born
γεγεννημένος (gegennēmenos)
Verb - Perfect Participle Middle or Passive - Nominative Masculine Singular
Strong's 1080: From a variation of genos; to procreate; figuratively, to regenerate.
My paraphrase of 18a:
Now onto the next clause:
The main verb for this clause is:
keeps/protects
τηρεῖ (tērei)
Verb - Present Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular
Strong's 5083: From teros; to guard, i.e. To note; by implication, to detain; by extension, to withhold; by extension, to withhold.
The secondary verb is the participle:
was born
γεννηθεὶς (gennētheis)
Verb - Aorist Participle Passive - Nominative Masculine Singular
Strong's 1080: From a variation of genos; to procreate; figuratively, to regenerate.
My paraphrase of 18b:
Does "born" have the same meaning on the two occasions it occurs in 1 John 5:18?"
On both occasions, they are the same Greek G1080, sharing the same lexical meaning. They differ in tenses. One is in perfect tense; the other is in the aorist.
My paraphrase of 1 John 5:Interesting topic.
What is your conclusion?
/
When a person was born of God, God planted his seed, the Paraclete, in him. The Paraclete established a connection with his human spirit. This was a singular one-time event. The Paraclete started to protect his human spirit. Satan cannot touch his spirit.18 We know that
having been born (perfect participle) of God, he does not routinely sin;
having had been born of God clearly and distinctly (aorist participle), God protects him.
I like what you are saying here, but unless you are living as the apostles were then we must confess our sins and desire to do better before God:My paraphrase of 1 John 5:
When a person was born of God, God planted his seed, the Paraclete, in him. The Paraclete established a connection with his human spirit. This was a singular one-time event. The Paraclete started to protect his human spirit. Satan cannot touch his spirit.
Now, having been born of God, i.e., having the Paraclete dwelling in him, as a natural consequence, he does not routinely sin. His volition is in touch with his spirit connected to the Holy Spirit.
I've heard this epistle was in part a response to Gnosticism, which taught that physical matter was evil, and spirit was pure--and that, as a result, 1) Christ was a spirit, couldn't have incarnated, bc He'd have been sinful if He'd incarnated, 2) they expect Christians to continue on in gross sin.I think you're overthinking it. The stated purpose of the letter is to exhort his flock to resist sinning. It's right up front:
My little children, these things I write to you, so that you may not sin. (1 John 2:1a)
In chapter 3 verse 9, he is appealing to their sense of identity as children of God, and children of God don't sin.
Otherwise, it's a flat-out contradiction.
This shall be the last time I respond yet again.This is the 3rd and the last time I ask: How often do you read the Bible?
As shall you. You will answer for every word.You know that God will judge the words of your mouth? See if you can give me the verse reference for this one?
You can see the anti-gnostic defense more in John's second letter:I've heard this epistle was in part a response to Gnosticism, which taught that physical matter was evil, and spirit was pure--and that, as a result, 1) Christ was a spirit, couldn't have incarnated, bc He'd have been sinful if He'd incarnated ...
This issue is easily resolved: it is true that our flesh is sinful, which is why Christ destroys it for us when we share in His death (Ro 6:6, 7:4), but Christ's flesh was not. It may be that this was the reason He had to have no human father--the curse of the sinful flesh may be passed through the father (but He did have to have Davidic lineage, and He had that through Mary).You can see the anti-gnostic defense more in John's second letter:
7 I say this because many deceivers, who do not acknowledge Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh, have gone out into the world. Any such person is the deceiver and the antichrist. (2 John 1:7)That's why I say it's unfortunate that Paul used "sarx" ("flesh") to describe the human sin-nature. The NIV may have gotten this right in translating "sarx" as such. "Flesh" does not carry the same overtones of sinfulness in the Hebrew scriptures. For example:
I will give you a new heart and put a new spirit in you; I will remove from you your heart of stone and give you a heart of flesh. (Ezekiel 36:26)"Flesh" is actually a good thing in this passage. (At least compared to stone.)
The reason I mentioned that John's letter is against Gnosticism is because it can be abused otherwise--eg, John says that "every spirit that confesses Christ is come in the flesh is of God", but we know that that cannot be true in every case, because the Galatians were never told to not believe that Christ was incarnated, and, yet, they were misled into believing in a "persuasion" that did not "come from [God]" Gal 5:8, so, it seems some of these statements John makes are only valid in particular contexts.You can see the anti-gnostic defense more in John's second letter:
7 I say this because many deceivers, who do not acknowledge Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh, have gone out into the world. Any such person is the deceiver and the antichrist. (2 John 1:7)That's why I say it's unfortunate that Paul used "sarx" ("flesh") to describe the human sin-nature. The NIV may have gotten this right in translating "sarx" as such. "Flesh" does not carry the same overtones of sinfulness in the Hebrew scriptures. For example:
I will give you a new heart and put a new spirit in you; I will remove from you your heart of stone and give you a heart of flesh. (Ezekiel 36:26)"Flesh" is actually a good thing in this passage. (At least compared to stone.)
When was the last time you lied?This shall be the last time I respond yet again.
Everyday.
Asked and answered.When was the last time you lied?