Why The Delay in Acts 8:5-24 To Be Saved?
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I too have the Holy Spirit but after studying the gifts, realized today's versions are not the biblical ones.
Articulation is not one of my gifts, especially when I haven't rehearsed, practiced or shared my testimony. Faith comes by hearing and hearing by the word. Logos. But when I 'saw' what I perceived to be Jesus, my faith and prayer turned pretty radical that night. Faith is substantial. <<Watchman Nee helped me get a better grasp of faith.
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1stCenturyLady
Well-Known Member
Wrong.
Acts 10: While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who heard the word. 45 And those of the circumcision who believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also.
No laying on of hands.
1stCenturyLady
Well-Known Member
Wrong - they are. What some don't realize is they are trying to impose rules on one gift, when it only applies to another gift. I suspect that is what you may be doing. For instance, there are two manifestations of tongues. One of them does not REQUIRE interpretation, but the unlearned only sees the rules for the other.
1stCenturyLady
Well-Known Member
The measure of faith given to mankind is from God, and is biblical faith. Therefore, man is without excuse. (And Calvinism is error to the extreme, in more than one area of doctrine.)
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“and that we may be delivered from perverse and evil people. For not all have faith.” (2 Thessalonians 3:2) (NET)
If we begin a new thread, I can show you what the real gifts were and how today's "gifts" only imitate them. But we should not take this thread off topic. I simply answered the OP and people didn't like the answer. So it became tangled.
This is one of two outpourings I mentioned. All other giving of the gifts were through the hands of an apostle (one sent by Jesus).
1stCenturyLady
Well-Known Member
All have a measure of faith, but not all have faith in Jesus. There is a difference between faith in yourself, and faith in God. Did you read the context, or just try to find a verse wiggly squiggly that says close to what you want it to? It doesn't mean no faith whatsoever, but in whom.
1stCenturyLady
Well-Known Member
So exactly what formula are you trying to impose? God does the baptizing, whether sovereignly or by laying on of hands. God doesn't need an apostle.
No, but he used the gifts to confirm the Apostles authority. (the signs of an Apostle). Tongues were also for a sign of impending doom which happened in 70 AD in Jerusalem Isaiah 28:11–13.
1stCenturyLady
Well-Known Member
No the "judgment" of 1 Corinthians 14:21 was impending doom to those who wouldn't accept CHRIST. It had nothing to do with the temple. But, you are right in that tongues was a negative sign, not a positive sign as most believe. Good for you. You just got the 'what' wrong. You see, it pointed to the same type of sign that CHRIST is, not the type of sign that the temple was - none. Can you tell me what type of sign Christ was and how it was a negative sign?
In the OT God threatened the Jews with serving men of other tongues or languages they did not understand. This was the main purpose behind the gift, that prophecy already covered for.
1stCenturyLady
Well-Known Member
Tongues + interpretation = prophecy.
“For with stammering lips and another tongue Will he speak to this people. To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; And this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear. But the word of the Lord was unto them Precept upon precept, precept upon precept; Line upon line, line upon line; Here a little, and there a little; That they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, And snared, and taken.” (Isaiah 28:11–13)
Plus several other threats based on foreign tongues as a symbol of judgement.
1stCenturyLady
Well-Known Member
Yes, that is one of the tongues manifestations of the Spirit. But the one in verse 23 is not the gift of diverse kinds of tongues that requires interpretation, and does not equal prophecy.
1stCenturyLady
Well-Known Member
Exactly. What TYPE of sign? We already agreed there is a judgment of some kind involved, so it is a negative sign, so is not prophecy which is positive. What is that type of sign called in Scripture? Hint, Jesus is the same type of sign.
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I believe you have misunderstood the gift of tongues (as have many others). Interpretation is quite necessary for genuine tongues (glossais =languages). And there are NOT two manifestations of tongues.
The operation of the gift of tongues within the church (assembly) is explained in detail in Scripture (1 Cor 14). Because these were foreign UNLEARNED languages spoken supernaturally by the power of the Spirit, interpretation was an absolute necessity for any edification for others. And women were forbidden from speaking.
...for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, except he interpret, that the church may receive edifying.(v 5)
Even so ye, forasmuch as ye are zealous of spiritual gifts, seek that ye may excel to the edifying of the church.(v 12)
Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret. (v 13)
If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret. (v 27)
But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God. (v 28)
Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law. (v 34)
This gift of genuine languages is not being manifested today. What we have today is glossolalia (babbling) which does not correspond to any human language.
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