It makes no logical sense that God would care one whit about the gonads of His ministers. But logic is never invoked as a basis to deny ordination to women. Rather, the arguments against women serving as clergy are always premised on Scripture, primarily Paul’s letters, especially 1 Cor. 14:34-35: “the women should keep silent in the churches. For they are not permitted to speak, but should be in submission, as the Law also says. If there is anything they desire to learn, let them ask their husbands at home. For it is shameful for a woman to speak in church.”
For several reasons, I’m not buying it. I think it far more logical to conclude that this comment is a culturally sensitive anachronism and not a timeless directive.
First, note that Paul is not purporting to speak from divine revelation on this point―and this is a guy who isn’t shy about declaring that his teachings come from the word of the Lord when that is so (as in 1 Cor. 7:10 and 1 Thess. 4:15). Rather, he cites “the Law” as his authority. (Yup, the same “Law” that he elsewhere says we are not under,
see Rom. 6:14, Gal. 5:18.) What Old Testament directive supports him? I can find none aside from Gen. 3:16: “I will surely multiply your pain in childbearing; in pain you shall bring forth children. Your desire shall be for your husband, and
he shall rule over you.” But there is nothing here about women keeping silent. Indeed, rather than a general statement about the relative position between men and women, this verse is about the special relation between husband and wife. If this is the “Law” that Paul meant to invoke, his words would only apply to married women. A female minister whose husband was not in the congregation can’t possibly run afoul of this “Law.”
Second is his use of “shameful” (αἰσχρὸνto) to describe the practice of women speaking in church. Shame is a human reaction to violating the mores of the times. 1 Cor. 11:16 uses the same word αἰσχρὸνto to describe a woman praying with her head uncovered.
Then there is 1 Tim. 2:12: “I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet.” This too looks to be specific to husband and wives. The word γυναικὶ used in this verse can be translated either as “woman” or as “wife” – the proper meaning being a matter of the passage’s context. No one would doubt for example, that γυναικὶ should be translated as “wife” in Matt. 19:5, or in 1 Cor. 7:3, 14, 27 and 33. So should it be in 1 Tim. 2:12, according to Luther: “Here we properly take ‘woman’ to mean ‘wife,’ as he reveals from his correlative phrase (v. 12) ‘to have authority over man,’ that is, over her husband. He calls the husband ‘man,’ so he calls the wife ‘woman.’ Where men and women have been joined together, there the men, not the women, ought to have authority. . . . He wants to save the order preserved by the world—that a man be the head of a woman, as 1 Corinthians 11:3 tells us.” Martin Luther,
Lectures on 1 Timothy, found in
Luther’s Works, vol. 28, Hilton C. Oswald ed. (Concordia, 1973), 276–77.
There is a contextual reason to translate γυναικὶ as “wife” here. Reading verses 8 through 14 together discloses that silence is not commanded upon women generally, since v. 9 speaks about how women should dress modestly, apparently while praying with men in public. A command that “women” should be silent a few verses later just makes little sense– but if it is “wives” being referred to a few verses later, then the entirety of the passage can be more easily saved from inconsistency. I prefer interpretations where the writer doesn’t contradict himself in the space of six verses! If we conclude that Paul isn’t trying to silence women generally, as 1 Cor. 11:5 shows, discussing the women wearing a veil while prophesying, then logic suggests that wives and husbands are being referred to in verses 11 through 14.
In any event, since he doesn’t purport to transmit a teaching received from divine revelation here, why should we care about what one Paul of Tarsus does or doesn’t permit? Paul is fallible, as any man is fallible. (
Acts 10:34 relates Peter’s “Aha” moment of realizing that God shows no partiality. If Peter’s views could be in error, why not Paul’s? What makes
him immune from error?)
Lastly, it is worth noting that Paul hasn’t been entirely consistent; he dispatched Phoebe, a deaconess from Cenchreae just a few miles from Corinth, to preach in Rome. (Rom. 16:1 uses the word διάκονον to describe her position.)