Psalm 110:1 is literally, "Yahweh said to Yahweh"
You are getting carried away here. It is ....the Lord (YHVH) said to my Lord (la-ADONI).
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Psalm 110:1 is literally, "Yahweh said to Yahweh"
You are getting carried away here. It is ....the Lord (YHVH) said to my Lord (la-ADONI).
You are getting carried away here. It is ....the Lord (YHVH) said to my Lord (la-ADONI).
You are getting carried away here. It is ....the Lord (YHVH) said to my Lord (la-ADONI).
not really, in verse 5 it reads, "the Lord (’ă·ḏō·nāy) at Your Right-Hand", which is "la·ḏō·nî" in verse 1.
However, in about 20 Hebrew MT manuscripts, which have nothing to do with the Christian Church, verse 5 reads, not "’ă·ḏō·nāy", but, "Yah·weh", which is literally, "Yah·weh at Your Right-Hand", which makes verse 1, "Yah·weh said to Yah·weh". Dr Adam Clarke in his commeantary says, that there is one Hebrew manscript that reads in verse 1 "Yah·weh", instead of "la·ḏō·nî"
Clearly this has been tampered with
The verse you thought of is Psalm 110:1. It always comes to my mind when anyone says or suggests that there is more than one Yahweh.
so now the bible is not to be trusted because it has been tampered with??? and the original manuscript does not read Yahweh....lol.... good try though.
so now the bible is not to be trusted because it has been tampered with??? and the original manuscript does not read Yahweh....lol.... good try though.
the Jews did corrupt the Old Testament especially when it refers to Jesus Christ, as the Jehovah's Witnesses did with John 1:1, Revelation 3:14, etc
as I have said before you don't know what you are on about! you should try one of the easier threads on here!
FACTS are FACTS, and Pslam 110:5 has been corrupted by the Jews, because there are at least TWENTY Habrew manuscripts that reads YAHWEH when speaking about Jesus Christ!
First of all you cannot use Revelation to prove Jesus being God Himself because it the very first line of chapter one "God told Jesus who told the angel the Revelation... Second, you cannot use John 1:1 as making Jesus God Himself either because Jesus himself said that he did not come down from heaven to do his own will...
I have nothing further to say to you on this, let someone else do so!
I have nothing further to say to you on this, let someone else do so!
First of all you cannot use Revelation to prove Jesus being God Himself because it the very first line of chapter one "God told Jesus who told the angel the Revelation... Second, you cannot use John 1:1 as making Jesus God Himself either because Jesus himself said that he did not come down from heaven to do his own will...
You sort of can use Rev, together with other verses, to show Jesus is, as John says, God. In human form.
John is talking about Jesus. He calls Jesus the word, the light that was before the sun and moon, the lamb. English comprehension of the passage shows that He is talking about Jesus in the entire passage. Even if there might be some confusion of mind, that John is talking about Jesus is not one of those confusions if you are an English speaker reading the passage.
Then whose will did God Himself come down from heave to do, if not his own???
John 1:1 clearly states that Jesus is God Himself and verse 14 solidifies that God Himself became flesh...
So without removing Jesus from being God Himself, answer the question...
Umm…this is odd…to state that John does not say Jesus is God here: “And John 1:1 does not say that Jesus was God Himself” (that’s a quote of you).
And then to say this: “John 1:1 clearly states that Jesus is God Himself.” (That’s also a quote of you).
Not sure how to reconcile both your quotes there…