David in NJ
Well-Known Member
No...I am saying that Jesus was born to be the Messiah, but he needed to grow up first. As an infant he needed education and training, just like any other son of devout Jewish parents. His superior intellect would have put him in the genius category as the teachers at the Temple marveled as his wisdom for such a youngster, only 12 years old.
Luke 2:46-50...
"Well, after three days they found him in the temple, sitting in the midst of the teachers and listening to them and asking them questions. 47 But all those listening to him were in constant amazement at his understanding and his answers."
So it is obvious that God had guided this young man on his path and he was well versed in the word of God, thanks to his devoted parents.
"And the young child continued growing and getting strong, being filled with wisdom, and God’s favor continued upon him." (Luke 2:40)
But growing up as a human, there was still much that he did not know about his past life....and details also about what was ahead of him. That was revealed in God's due time.
On presenting himself for baptism (which was not for forgiveness of sins or for repentance over transgressions against the Law of Moses) the account in Matthew 3:16-17 tells us that...
"After being baptized, Jesus immediately came up from the water; and look! the heavens were opened up, and he saw God’s spirit descending like a dove and coming upon him. 17 Look! Also, a voice from the heavens said: “This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved.”
So only at his baptism did Jesus become the "Christ"; the Greek word Khri·stosʹ, which is equivalent to the Hebrew word translated “Messiah,” or “Anointed One.” So, only then was the Holy Spirit operative on him as part of his anointing. Just like the disciples at Pentecost received their anointing with Holy Spirit to become "sons of God" by adoption.
Galatians 4:1-5...
"Now I say that as long as the heir is a young child, he is no different from a slave, although he is the lord of all things, 2 but he is under supervisors and stewards until the day set ahead of time by his father. 3 Likewise, we too, when we were children, were enslaved by the elementary things of the world. 4 But when the full limit of the time arrived, God sent his Son, who was born of a woman and who was under law, 5 that he might release by purchase those under law, so that we might receive the adoption as sons."
There is not a single mention of Jesus being able to perform miracles until after his baptism. It was one of the reasons why his siblings did not yet believe in him...he was just their older brother.
The heavens opened up, allowing Jesus to see the holy Spirit in the shape of a dove descend upon him....and then hearing his Father's voice of approval. But as to the road ahead (and in all likelihood, what Jesus had left behind regarding his former position in heaven)....the magnitude of this required 40 days in the wilderness to come to terms with it all, communing with his Father about all those details and also that which was to come.
He was born for this role....there was no other reason for his coming into the world. So the promised Savior was born, the future "King of the Jews"...but would not begin to fulfill his role as Messiah until the age of 30, when he presented himself for baptism.....and his Kingship was yet hundreds of decades into the future.
Are you under the impression that humans were created sinful? Were Adam or his wife "sinful" before their disobedience?
Did God create flawed human beings who could not help but sin, and then punish them for doing so?
Why did the devil tempt Jesus? He knew that he was the son of God, and that God would protect him to the end.
Consider.....didn't the devil already have two notches on his belt? Two sinless humans who were created perfect, but who, out of their own free will acted in direct contravention to God's explicit command......only then did they become "sinners"....and they passed that sin onto all their offspring. (Romans 5:12)
To entice Jesus from his course by challenging him to abuse his free will, could have messed everything up. But Jesus showed that the first humans could have obeyed one simple command and told the devil to "go away" as Jesus had done. (Matthew 4:1-11) Thus proving that giving his children free will, was not a mistake.
The redeemer could not have been a sinful son of Adam or else he could not have paid the required price for freeing mankind from the perpetual sentence of sin and death. He had to be sinless like Adam was....."a life for a life". (Exodus 21:23-25) Equivalency is what God's Law demanded.
1 Corinthians 15:45...
"So it is written: “The first man Adam became a living person.” The last Adam became a life-giving spirit."
I agree....how did you get the impression that I believe differently. The Holy Spirit has always been dispensed in due measure....not too much, not too little. Precisely measured out as to need.
Unclear questions often gain unclear answers....
I would ask you to clarify the term "agency of the Spirit" for I have no idea what that means?
You said some beautiful things here.
But this one is off and needs some fixing.
"So only at his baptism did Jesus become the "Christ"; the Greek word Khri·stosʹ, which is equivalent to the Hebrew word translated “Messiah,” or “Anointed One.” So, only then was the Holy Spirit operative on him as part of his anointing. Just like the disciples at Pentecost received their anointing with Holy Spirit to become "sons of God" by adoption."
Galatians 4:1-5...
The Holy Spirit was in Him before birth and after birth - Jesus said to John why He was allowing John to baptize Him and why we were permitted to see the Spirit descend upon Him like a Dove.
Remember - a page of bible verses does not prove anything - just stay on the exact subject - nothing more/less.
But let your ‘Yes’ be ‘Yes,’ and your ‘No,’ ‘No.’ For whatever is more than these is from the evil one. Matthew 5:37