aspen
“"The harvest is plentiful but the workers are few
-- I know.
But you yourself stated it is 'mans interpretation' of God's word.
That is the problem.
Not for God
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-- I know.
But you yourself stated it is 'mans interpretation' of God's word.
That is the problem.
Not for God
-- But it is for man.
And since the whole purpose for the Bible was to ensure that man could better understand, commune, and love God and find salvation, your post is valueless.
I do not think that type of intimacy with God is the purpose of the Bible - instead, it is the purpose of prayer. The OT is a record of humanities' bumbling attempts to respond to a Sovereign God; the NT is God's perfect response to His sovereignty, If the main purpose of the Bible was to convey information about God, beyond His Sovereignty and Love, He would not have used humans to convey the information.
-- If that is what you think the extent of the Bible's necessity is, I fear you are sadly mistaken.
It is so very much more than what you say.
The Bible is one of the greatest tools to help ensure intimacy with God.
It is proof that perfection isn't necessary to be loved by God and used in a great way.
It teaches why God is worthy of praise, the importance of praise, and how to praise.
It give clear right-and-wrong guidelines for your life.
It teaches you the power of prayer, why prayer is vital and HOW to pray.
It is one of the options through which God directs you as well as gives answers to your prayers.
It provides you the method by which the Holy Spirit directs you and equips you to witness to the lost.
The Bible has brought several people to know God who have never in their lives prayed before.
You put it on the same level of a tract handed to you at an airport.
1 Kings 14:26 "And Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses..."
2 Chronicles 9:25 "And Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses..."
Mark 8:12 - "Why does this generation seek a sign? Assuredly, I say to you, no sign shall be given to this generation"
Luke 11:29 - "This is an evil generation. It seeks a sign, and no sign will be given to it except the sign of Jonah the prophet."
There is no mention of horses in the entire chapter of 1 Kings 14.
1 King 4:26,,, there was an error in carrying over the verse.
EDIT: Gill's Exposition "And Solomon had forty thousand stalls for horses,.... In 2 Chronicles 9:25; it is only four thousand; and therefore some think that here is a mistake of the copier, of "arbaim", forty, for "arbah", four; which it is thought might be through divine permission, in such lesser matters, without any prejudice to the authority of the Scriptures in matters of faith and practice..."
Here's an interesting "explanation" for that...
The two passages describe different types of stalls
1 Kings 4:26 says:
“Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses for his chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen”.
2 Chronicles 9:25 says:
“Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen”.
The two verses do not contradict because they describe different types of stalls. The stalls in 1 Kings 4:26 were "of horses" which were used for chariots and by horsemen. Nothing in this verse says that these stalls were for the chariots. On the other hand, the stalls in 2 Chronicles 9:25 were for "horses and chariots". Such a stall to house both horses and chariots would not have been as numerous as stalls to house just horses because there is always a smaller ratio of chariots to horses. In fact, 2 Chronicles 1:14 says there were 1,400 chariots. Hence it makes sense that there would be less of these stalls that were capable of storing both horses and chariots.
Whereas 2 Chronicles 9:25 describes the purpose of the stalls (i.e. "stalls for...."), 1 Kings 4:26 describes the purpose of the horses (i.e. "horses for...."). In saying that the purpose of the horses was for Solomon's "chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen" (interpreting the "twelve thousand horsemen" as part of the conjunctive list belonging with "chariots"), 1 Kings 4:26 effectively links the horses to items of which we know the numbers. If these horses were for 1,400 chariots (2 Chronicles 1:14) and 12,000 horsemen, the number of horses would have been considerably large. Even with the conservative assumption of 2 horses per chariot and 1 horse per horseman, the number of horses needed for 1,400 chariots and 12,000 horsemen is 14,800 horses. If there were one horse on reserve (a spare) per every horse on duty, that would already be 29,600 horses. Hence, 40,000 stalls would have been a reasonable number to accommodate this many horses.
In conclusion, there were 40,000 stalls that were for housing horses, and 4,000 stalls that were for storing horses and chariots. The two numbers could be harmonized if each of the 4,000 stalls with the space to house a chariot had 10 subdividing stalls for individual horses.
http://www.kjvtoday....-in-1-kings-426
kepha31,
re: "The latter verse having more detail does not mean it is a contradiction."
So using that reasoning, when Luke 18:33 says that He will rise ON the third day, and Mark 8:31 says that the Messiah will rise AFTER three days, Mark is simply supplying more detail by including the word "AFTER" which for some reason Luke forgot to include?
1 Kings 14:26 "And Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses..."
2 Chronicles 9:25 "And Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses..."
Mark 8:12 - "Why does this generation seek a sign? Assuredly, I say to you, no sign shall be given to this generation"
Luke 11:29 - "This is an evil generation. It seeks a sign, and no sign will be given to it except the sign of Jonah the prophet."
Stan,
re: "These two verses do NOT represent the same time in scripture."
What difference does that make?