In case some of my Christian brethren are not aware...
There is a major difference between the idea of a 'rapture' verses the idea of a 'pre-tribulational rapture'. I even had to explain this to my sister per Scripture again, because she had been listening to Pre-trib Rapture theory programming on TV.
1. the word 'rapture' is not written in The Bible firstly. The Greek word for "caught up" in the KJV of 1 Thessalonians 4:17 is the word harpazo (NT:726). It means to seize. From this Greek word harpazo into Latin is where the word 'rapture' comes from.
2. There will be a harpazo event for Christ's Church on the day of His future return ("caught up" in the KJV Bible per 1 Thessalonians 4:17). Some call this simply, 'the rapture', but I choose to use the KJV "caught up" most of the time, so as to not confuse...
3. The teaching of a PRE-TRIBULATIONAL rapture is what is false. What makes it false is the 'timing' suggested. The Bible teaches Jesus comes in the future only one time to gather His Church on the last day of this present world. But the Pre-trib Rapture Theory of man instead wrongly teaches that Jesus comes PRIOR TO THE TRIBULATION to gather His Church, and then all those Left-behind go through the "great tribulation". This is NOT what God's Word teaches at all.
4. The false Pre-trib Rapture theory doctors like to drop that single word 'rapture' on the unsuspecting about their 'idea' of Jesus coming prior to the tribulation. And this abuse of that word 'rapture' has gone on so long that when many simply hear... that word rapture, they automatically think that means the Church being gathered PRIOR to the great tribulation, which simply is NOT true per God's written Word.
So if you want to use that Latin derived word 'rapture' (which is not actually in The Bible), then WHICH TIMING do you mean? A post-tribulational coming by Christ to gather His Church (which is written)? or a pre-tribulational coming by Christ to gather His Church (which is NOT written)?
There is a major difference between the idea of a 'rapture' verses the idea of a 'pre-tribulational rapture'. I even had to explain this to my sister per Scripture again, because she had been listening to Pre-trib Rapture theory programming on TV.
1. the word 'rapture' is not written in The Bible firstly. The Greek word for "caught up" in the KJV of 1 Thessalonians 4:17 is the word harpazo (NT:726). It means to seize. From this Greek word harpazo into Latin is where the word 'rapture' comes from.
2. There will be a harpazo event for Christ's Church on the day of His future return ("caught up" in the KJV Bible per 1 Thessalonians 4:17). Some call this simply, 'the rapture', but I choose to use the KJV "caught up" most of the time, so as to not confuse...
3. The teaching of a PRE-TRIBULATIONAL rapture is what is false. What makes it false is the 'timing' suggested. The Bible teaches Jesus comes in the future only one time to gather His Church on the last day of this present world. But the Pre-trib Rapture Theory of man instead wrongly teaches that Jesus comes PRIOR TO THE TRIBULATION to gather His Church, and then all those Left-behind go through the "great tribulation". This is NOT what God's Word teaches at all.
4. The false Pre-trib Rapture theory doctors like to drop that single word 'rapture' on the unsuspecting about their 'idea' of Jesus coming prior to the tribulation. And this abuse of that word 'rapture' has gone on so long that when many simply hear... that word rapture, they automatically think that means the Church being gathered PRIOR to the great tribulation, which simply is NOT true per God's written Word.
So if you want to use that Latin derived word 'rapture' (which is not actually in The Bible), then WHICH TIMING do you mean? A post-tribulational coming by Christ to gather His Church (which is written)? or a pre-tribulational coming by Christ to gather His Church (which is NOT written)?