The Son of Man returns with and for his people

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CadyandZoe

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That is not true. I assume when you say the next three chapters you mean the rest of chapter 9 as well as chapters 10 and 11?
Yes, that's right.
Romans 9:22

How can you say he was focused on the nation of Israel when he made it clear that "the objects of" God's "mercy, whom he prepared in advance for glory" were "called, not only from the Jews but also from the Gentiles"?
I think a bit of investigation will reveal that Paul wrote this letter to a group of Jewish Christians who were returning to Rome after the Roman Emperor decreed that the Jewish people were able to return to Rome. Paul knew that these Jewish Christians would face opposition, just as he did, from his Jewish opponents. He sets out to answer objections to his gospel in the form of rhetorical questions beginning in chapter 5 and ending after chapter 11. The central focus of the entire epistle is the debate between the faction of Jewish Christians who believed that Christians needed to keep Moses and those Jewish Christians who knew otherwise.

Chapters 9 through 11 answer the "Moses keepers" objection that God promised salvation to the Hebrews, and unless one entered into the people of God, i.e. the Hebrews, one can not be saved. In the context of that debate, Paul says, "whom he called, not only from the Jews but also from the Gentiles", weighing in on the side of those who believed that a Gentile did NOT need to keep Moses to be granted the blessing.


Then there's this:

Romans 10:10-13

Is this focused on the nation of Israel? Absolutely not. It is focused on the fact that individuals who call on the name of the Lord will be saved and that includes both Jews and Gentiles. Did you somehow miss this when reading the next few chapters?
Again, speaking to the debate concerning whether or not a Gentile needs to enter into Israel to be saved, Paul argues his point from the Hebrew scriptures reminding them that Moses spoke of two distinct routes to justification: justification by works and justification by faith. Paul tells his Jewish opponents that even Moses spoke of justification by faith. Then he reminds them that "anyone who believes in him will never be put to shame." He concludes then, that "there is no difference between Jew and Gentile" (with regard to justification) the same Lord is Lord of all.

The Topic is still centered on Israel because the debate is over the question, "Does a Gentile need to keep Moses in order to be saved?" Do the Gentiles need to become like Ruth, entering into the Hebrew people?
Then there's this:

Romans 11:11-22

Is this passage focused on the nation of Israel? No. It has the same focus as the passage from Romans 10. It's all about individuals being saved by faith including both Jews and Gentiles. And Paul also talks about being cut off because of unbelief and made it clear that doesn't just apply to Jews, but also applies to Gentiles.
Yes. Again, the rhetorical question is, "Did Israel stumble so as to fall?"
In regards to salvation, he most certainly did argue that.
Paul is answering another objection to his Gospel. God promised to grant the Blessing to the Hebrews, a point he grants as given. And so why did not grant his blessing to the Hebrews? To that end, it wouldn't serve his argument to suggest that physicality doesn't matter. Physicality is an essential aspect of the idea that he just granted as true.
Repeatedly. You can see that very clearly not only in Romans 9:6-8, but also in passages like Romans 9:22-24, Romans 10:10-12 and Romans 11:11-22.


How do you think it matters exactly?
First of all, it is important for believers to know that God always keeps his promises. The fact that God will keep his promise to the Hebrews is important evidence that he will keep his promise to us. Secondly, God's promise to the Hebrews is the subtext of future events when God will vindicate his name.

Paul hinted at this purpose earlier in chapter 2.

Romans 2:23 You who boast in the Law, through your breaking the Law, do you dishonor God? 24 For “the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles because of you,” just as it is written.

The backstory on this is found in the passage Paul quoted and the ancient beliefs concerning the gods.

Yahweh promised to be a god for Israel. This meant that Yahweh agreed to protect Israel from her enemies. But, because Israel became idolatrous, God allowed Israel to be taken captive into exile to live among the Gentiles. From the standpoint of the Gentiles, they concluded that the defeat of Israel indicated that Yahweh was weak, ineffectual, and impotent. He promised Israel to be her god, but he wasn't up to the task. For this reason, Yahweh tells Israel, "Because of you my name is being blasphemed among the Gentiles."

If the Hebrews no longer exist or if they don't return to the land, then God won't be able to make his name holy again. Physicality matters because God is being accused of not being able to keep a people for himself. And the only way to disprove this blaspheme is for him to defeat the enemies of Israel and the "gods" of the Gentiles in view of the Hebrew people.
How are you not saying that they are children BY physical descent when you believe one day those who natural descend from Israel will all be saved but you don't believe that about the people of any other nation?
My beliefs come from God's prophetic word. I was hoping that someday we would be able to get to the meat of the matter, but we can't seem to get past this point.

I believe the prophetic word predicts a time in our future when God will bring famine and an army of fires against Israel. During that time, a call will go out to the people, urging them to come to Jerusalem to pray for the deliverance of Israel from her enemies, from the famine, and from the army of fires. Those who fear the Lord, will obey the call and come to Jerusalem. Those who don't obey the call will be destroyed. In this manner, the Hebrew people will be greatly reduced in number but all of those that remain in Jerusalem are God's sanctified ones.
And, are you implying here that you think there is a difference between "God's children" and "God's people"? If so, I can't take that seriously. That's complete nonsense.
Yes. I make that distinction because the Bible makes that distinction.
No, it does not. Not even close. That is something that you have made up.
I proved it with scripture. Take it or leave it. But you read it yourself.
No, his focus was on what makes someone a true child of God and he goes on to make it clear that the basis for that is the same for both Jews and Gentiles, which is having faith like Abraham had. You claim that his focus was solely on Israel in Romans 9-11, but that is clearly wrong. It's as if Romans 10:10-12 and Romans 11:11-22 are not in your Bible.
Reread the first five verses. And also note that the term "Israel" is absent from the epistle to the Romans except for chapters 9,10 and 11.
What promise are you talking about exactly?
The specific promise Paul mentioned in verse 4.
And should we ignore that he wrote elsewhere about the promises God made to Abraham being applied to Jesus and those who belong to Jesus, including Jew and Gentile believers?
No. But we need to stay focused on the context in order to understand Paul's intent. And, we need to avoid superimposing other passages over the top of Romans 9.
In what way do you think it matters then? The children of promise are only believers, right? Paul made that clear in Galatians 3:26-29. So, how exactly does ethnicity matter when it comes to determining who are the children of promise?
Ethnicity doesn't matter when it comes to determining who are the children of promise. But Paul isn't answering that question in Romans 9. Paul is answering the question, "Why isn't every Hebrew a child of promise since God made a promise to the Hebrews?
 

CadyandZoe

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Circumcision has never saved anyone, and Israel outside of Christ is lost.
Don't lose the point. I maintain that the Hebrews are God's people, but not all of the Hebrews are God's sons. Why? Because circumcision is a requirement to enter the people of God; circumcision is NOT a requirement to enter Christ. The Bible refers to those in Christ as "sons".
 

CadyandZoe

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Their DNA did not change, their ancestry did not change, their origins did not change, and Scripture identifies them as "not of thy seed" and "strangers" to distinguish their temporal ethnicity from that of Abraham's seed.
Again, your point concerned Israel. And I offered Ruth as an example. Obviously, her ancestry didn't change and her origins didn't change. What changed was her allegiance to Naomi's people and Naomi's God. After that, she ceased to be a Gentile and became an Israelite.
 

covenantee

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Again, your point concerned Israel. And I offered Ruth as an example. Obviously, her ancestry didn't change and her origins didn't change. What changed was her allegiance to Naomi's people and Naomi's God. After that, she ceased to be a Gentile and became an Israelite.
Her DNA, ancestry, and origins did not change.

She became a Gentile Israelite.
 

covenantee

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Don't lose the point. I maintain that the Hebrews are God's people, but not all of the Hebrews are God's sons. Why? Because circumcision is a requirement to enter the people of God; circumcision is NOT a requirement to enter Christ. The Bible refers to those in Christ as "sons".
The points are irrefutable.

Circumcision has never saved anyone, and Israel outside of Christ is lost.

And no recognized historical Christian expositor espouses your artificial distinction between people and sons.
 
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Spiritual Israelite

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Spiritual Israelite,
My post was too long so, Lord willing, I will attempt to answer your thoughtful post with more than one post. (Zoe says that I was writing a book and I think she is right.)

I appreciate your kind sentiments and I trust that you would never purposely twist my words. And I also appreciate your patience with me. Thank you.


I admit, that was my former understanding of the prophets many years ago. But I no longer believe in a "mass conversion" of the entire nation of Israel and neither have I taught doctrine in this forum or on this board. As you may know, however, I believe that when Jesus returns to rule on earth, one of the very first things he will do when he returns is meet with the faithful Hebrews in Jerusalem.


God made a covenant with Israel. He didn't make a covenant with Americans, Mexicans, Nigerians etc. And the Bible explicitly says that God's "hesed" is everlasting. That is, God's "covenant faithfulness" is everlasting. At Mt. Sinai, God made an agreement with the Hebrew people, "I will be a god for you and you will be a people for me." And that covenant will continue forever. (Jeremiah 31:36)
As Hebrews 8:6-13 makes clear Jeremiah was talking about the new covenant and all of God's people are saved under the new covenant because it was established long ago by the blood of Christ. That includes Gentile believers. You do not want to accept the fact that Gentile believers are FELLOWHEIRS with Israelite believers of God's promises even though that is EXPLICITLY taught in New Testament scripture (see Ephesians 2:11-3:6, for example). So, I can only conclude that you have no desire to accept what Paul and the other NT authors taught.

Ridiculousness is relative to a particular group of people and a commonly held understanding of things. But it goes without saying that since you don't believe what I believe, what I say will sound ridiculous to you.
No, this is not necessarily true. I disagree with Premillennialism in general, but I don't find it to be ridiculous to see the thousand years as following the second coming of Christ. That is what one will conclude if they believe what is described in Revelation 20 follows what is described in Revelation 19 chronologically. I don't believe Revelation 19 and 20 are meant to be interpreted that way, but I wouldn't say it is ridiculous to interpret it that way.

That goes without saying. But what if you change your mind like I did?
I have changed my mind on some things in the past. I used to be a Premil at one time. But, at this point, when it comes to these things we're discussing, my mind is made up. I have studied these things for a long time. At some point we should make up our minds on some of these things, and I have. But only after much study.

Will you still think that my views are subject to ridicule? Maybe or maybe not. But I would like a chance to convince you.
You have already tried many times. It's not going to happen. Ever.

Let me put it to you this way. Do you think that each and every person who claims to be a Christian is a child of God? I don't.
Of course not. Claiming something doesn't make it so, obviously.

According to the Bible, a child of God is a person in whom the Spirit of God dwells. Consider for instance my favorite chapter of the Bible, Romans 8.

Romans 8:12-17
So then, brothers, we are under obligation, not to the flesh, to live according to the flesh— for if you are living in accord with the flesh, you are going to die; but if by the Spirit you are putting to death the deeds of the body, you will live. For all who are being led by the Spirit of God, these are sons of God. 15 For you have not received a spirit of slavery leading to fear again, but you have received a spirit of adoption as sons by which we cry out, “Abba! Father!” The Spirit Himself testifies with our spirit that we are children of God, and if children, heirs also, heirs of God and fellow heirs with Christ, if indeed we suffer with Him so that we may also be glorified with Him.

Given that definition then, we can confidently say that among the local congregation of Christians, some will be "sons," being led by the Spirit, and some will not be "sons," not being led by the Spirit. All of them confess to being "Christian," but not all of them are Christian in truth.

God chose a particular family line, Jacob and his descendants, to be his people. Even so, just as above, not each and every individual among the people of God are "sons" of God.
You just don't get it. Read Romans 11:1-7. Paul was speaking of Israelites specifically there and he said that God did not reject His people who He foreknew. And yet He did reject those Israelites who rejected His Son. The ones He did not reject were the remnant of believers who were saved by grace. He did reject the rest. So, this shows that "His people" were not all Israelites, but rather were only those who were believers. You are trying to include unbelievers among His people. That is not the case! Listen to Paul! His people are His children. Making a distinction between His people and His children is utterly ridiculous and baseless.

By the way, I did read your other posts as well, but I decided not to reply to those since I found almost everything you said to be complete nonsense and not worth responding to. Just being honest.
 
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n2thelight

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Right. Flesh and blood cannot inherit the Kingdom, but can enter the current heavenly kingdom. This is how Elijah and Enoch were able to and how John (Revelation) did.
Elijah and Enoch were taken up , meaning they were transfigured , at that moment . They did not go to Heaven in flesh bodies.
John was in the spirit, almost like a dream , to give the prophecy of Christ which was showed to him

The moment Christ feet touch the ground all flesh will be gone , period . It then is the kingdom of Christ


Revelation 11:15 "And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of Our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever."
 

ewq1938

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Elijah and Enoch were taken up , meaning they were transfigured , at that moment .

Transfiguration is about a physical change of the body not moving the body. Moving is a rapture/harpazo. There is nothing in the bible about Enoch or Elijah being physically changed.

They did not go to Heaven in flesh bodies.

Sure they did.


John was in the spirit, almost like a dream , to give the prophecy of Christ which was showed to him


John was writing things down in a book he brought back with him so he was physically in heaven and other places to witness things.

The moment Christ feet touch the ground all flesh will be gone , period . It then is the kingdom of Christ


No, all flesh doesn't just disappear. The living in Christ will change from mortal to immortal but only them. The unsaved will remain in mortal bodies.
 

Timtofly

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Why do you resort to nonsense like this? That is a serious question. I would love to know why you do this? You know that I do not "make everything symbolic". I absolutely do not do that and you know it. Do I interpret more of the book of Revelation symbolicaly than you do? Sure. But, do I interpret all of it symbolically? No. I've never said that. Not once. So, why do you act as if I do that? Give me an honest answer to this question.
That was not an accusation. That was a conditional thought.

Although I am not sure what you do interpret as literal from Revelation.

You are the one that claims as written should be symbolic.

I don't know if you interpret more of it symbolically than I do.

LOL. I could say the same to you. You can't make sense of Satan being bound for the past almost 2,000 years, but you should accept it, anyway. Right? You said yourself that you have to accept some parts of Scripture even if they don't make sense. So, there you go. You need to start taking your own advice and start accepting Amillennialism even if it doesn't make sense to you.

The verse you use is a symbolic reference. So, no Satan has not been literally bound for the last 2,000 years. Symbolically, probably, but nothing has really changed in your symbolic binding. Even you state Satan is able to do every thing he always did, just less of it. I think the Holy Spirit being allowed to work more freely would produce the same results as your symbolic binding. It is the Holy Spirit that keeps Satan in check. Not automatically as if the church could sit back and do nothing. The more active and involved in this spiritual battle the church is, the more bound Satan becomes.

The binding in Revelation 20 is literal and Satan has no influence at all. Amillennialism is not found anywhere in Scripture, just human theology, so I don't have to accept it, and of course it does not make sense.

When you say "as written", you mean literally. Can you just say literally instead of "as written"? Some things are written symbolically and we can take them "as written", which is symbolically. So, you just create confusion by talking about things "as written" since not everything is written literally.

You are the one who makes the excuse Revelation is too symbolic, to be taken literally. That is why I moved to as written, so you would point out what was written literally and what was written using symbolism. For instance.

A literal angel comes to earth. That is written symbolically as a star falls to earth. That seems pretty straightforward.

Now take the point. They lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years. That is a literal statement meant to be taken literally. Yet you still claim it is written only as a symbolic thought that time does not matter to God, so it actually means the past between the first and second advent.

Or the point. I saw the souls of those beheaded. Once a physical body is killed, and in this case literally beheaded, the soul leaves that body. Now most people have never seen a soul leave the body, nor a soul for that matter. But they do exist in a literal place called sheol waiting for the GWT event. A soul is a literal part of the triune image of God: soul, body, and spirit. There is a literal God, a literal Jesus, and a literal Holy Spirit. Those are not symbolic concepts describing something else, symbolic or literal. So the soul is not technically a symbolic word meaning something else. John being able to see all things spiritual and physical was not hindered in sight that he did not know what he actually saw when it comes to a soul. The soul existed for thousands of years in Abraham's bosom, waiting for the Cross. At that point the soul left Abraham's bosom, and received the first resurrection, a permanent incorruptible physical body. That is interpretation by context. So these were literal souls that experienced a literal resurrection into a literal physical body.


Now the point.

"And when he had opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of them that were slain for the word of God, and for the testimony which they held: And they cried with a loud voice, saying, How long, O Lord, holy and true, dost thou not judge and avenge our blood on them that dwell on the earth?"

In context the word soul is used symbolically, because the alter is symbolic. The white robes are symbolic. Why? How do we know what they symbolize? Is there a literal alter in heaven? Yes there is a literal alter, but this time we can read the words as literal.

"And I saw the seven angels which stood before God; and to them were given seven trumpets. And another angel came and stood at the altar, having a golden censer; and there was given unto him much incense, that he should offer it with the prayers of all saints upon the golden altar which was before the throne."

I don't know if you interpret both sets of verses symbolically or literally. You rarely state your point of view in our exchanges. But certainly from other Scripture, we can tell the difference and that those literal souls in chapter 6 are not literally under this alter in chapter 8.

So "as written" is from the point, if it is written in a symbolic point of view, then it has a literal explanation. If John uses the same words in another chapter it is not automatically assumed one way or the other. Unless of course one does not think those verses from chapter 8 are literal. There may not be 7 literal Trumpets in that case. If those are not literal Trumpets, then those assuming the 7th Trumpet is the one mentioned by Paul, would be wrong, because Paul talked about a literal Trumpet. John was explaining something totally different using symbolic Trumpets. The robe of white is not literally a white robe, nor should souls under the alter be taken as literally under the literal alter in chapter 8. Am I being selective in saying John wrote something literal using the same words both literally and symbolically, depending on context? Not any more nor less than you. That would also be the point, do you let Revelation explain anything else in Scripture, or do you see Revelation as only needing other Scripture to interpret the books text, because it is all written as symbolic?

Because in chapters 4 and 5, we have both symbolism and literal events and items interwoven, so how do we know which is which, because everyone has a seemingly different opinion. I am not the one to say there is a firm and safe way to figure it out. But it is really not that difficult, if as you say, you have the Holy Spirit guiding you.

But back to literal souls in Revelation 20. How can you interpret some of Revelation 20 as literal and then other parts symbolic? The chapter stops being symbolic when the symbolic use of the word dragon is directly associated with Satan. Then Satan is literally bound for a literal thousand years. We don't need other Scripture to point out an historical event that John is the only witness to as a first century writer. The problem is that you think John was just dreaming, and then writing down this prophetic dream. Then because you only see symbolism, you then associate that symbolism with any other Scripture you can find. And you use verses outside of Revelation to interpret Revelation for you. You use OT passages to interpret the clear message in Revelation 20, that does not need such outside interpretive help.

John wrote it as an historical event, along with the judgment of literal souls who were literally beheaded, because that is how it was written. John did not write it with symbolism to then make people go look for a meaning to put with that symbolism. John made a profound first reference to what he called the first resurrection. This is the first and only place in Scripture these two words are used together. Other than the "foreign to us" concept of Gog and Magog, Revelation 20 is pretty straight forward and not that difficult to grasp. Unless you are forcing it to say something it is not saying at all, because your default reason is: that because of symbolism, "here is what John actually meant".
 

Timtofly

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the case of natural descendants of Israel that they will one day be saved partly due to their nationality?
Why partly?

Did they partly keep the Law, and that was good enough?

Do you think God was thinking about nationality when God told a bunch of people to leave Egypt, in Moses' day?

They won't be saved according to your criteria. They will be chosen by God to live forever by God's criteria. They will not have any say in the matter at all. And most of that nation will be tossed into the LOF as goats. How is that going to help them because of their nationality?

What God is going to do is select a bunch of dead branches and put them back into the symbolic olive tree. They certainly are not going to jump off the symbolic ground, and put themselves back into the symbolic olive tree.

And guess what? They will all be from a nationality called Israel.

Your symbolic view breaks down for your own experience. You were not a natural branch. You were grafted in when you experienced the second birth. The whole of earth was not grafted into the tree. Being symbolic the wild branches were grafted in, not the group known as Gentiles.

You already got on my case once because you thought I said all of Israel was cut off as a single branch, yet that is how you phrase it as if Israel being cut out is out of their own tree as a single group and Gentiles are now the tree as a group replacing Israel.

If all of Israel was removed as a group it was never their tree, and it would be a branch in entirety, because if you cut off all the branches you will get the whole limb eventually. The tree was not Israel. The tree was Christ, and Israel was all the natural branches because they were God's original chosen nation.

It is the words natural and wild that point out the difference, not the words Israel and Gentile. Yes if you cut off a branch and replace that branch with a wild branch that is replacing one for the other.

If you take away the caretaker and replace the caretaker with a different nation, that is replacement.

If you think the symbolism is symbolically final, a one way decision, then you are missing the point the wild branches could be removed and the natural ones put back at God's decision, not any humans ability to make it happen. The Gentiles once more symbolically out of the picture, and Israel front and center again. Thus the church removed as caretaker, and Israel put back as the sole caretaker of the earthly kingdom. But you all despise the point of replacement, yet hold on to the symbolism.

Israel was always the natural branches being always cut out and destroyed. The Gentiles were always the wild ones, having to be grafted in. That is why nothing was replaced. Israel was not replaced by the church, because the relationship was always with Christ.

As far as being the caretaker, yes the church replaced Israel as the steward of the kingdom. But still there was no difference between those of Israel and the Gentiles being part of salvation. It was who was the sower of the seed and the responsible party.
 

face2face

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Elijah and Enoch were taken up , meaning they were transfigured , at that moment . They did not go to Heaven in flesh bodies.
They did not go to Heaven at all!
Only one has entered Heaven and had the blood to do so!
 

ewq1938

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They did not go to Heaven at all!

Let's see:

2Ki_2:1 And it came to pass, when the LORD would take up Elijah into heaven by a whirlwind, that Elijah went with Elisha from Gilgal.

2Ki_2:11 And it came to pass, as they still went on, and talked, that, behold, there appeared a chariot of fire, and horses of fire, and parted them both asunder; and Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven.



Only one has entered Heaven and had the blood to do so!


No, only one ascended into heaven. The bible describes this as a physical ascension. The bible clearly speaks of a whirlwind taking a mortal human into heaven.
 

face2face

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Let's see:

2Ki_2:1 And it came to pass, when the LORD would take up Elijah into heaven by a whirlwind, that Elijah went with Elisha from Gilgal.

2Ki_2:11 And it came to pass, as they still went on, and talked, that, behold, there appeared a chariot of fire, and horses of fire, and parted them both asunder; and Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven.

I understand what you want this to mean but after the Chariot went up into the sky noone knows what took place - what we do know is all in Adam die and stay dead - except one - the firstfruits.

To believe as you do would compromise too many doctrines concerning Christ, his reward for obedience and his ascension.

No, only one ascended into heaven. The bible describes this as a physical ascension. The bible clearly speaks of a whirlwind taking a mortal human into heaven.
No, but you would be right to stay with Christ being only man to ascend Heaven (God's dwelling place) John 3:13 still applies.
F2F
 
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Keraz

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God doesn't have an elect Nation in the middle east called Israel as you suggest
No, not yet; but He will or His whole plan for the redemption of His faithful people will have failed. That new nation will be called Beulah, as Isaiah 62:1-5 describes. Brought into being in one day; Isaiah 66:7-9.
 

face2face

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No, not yet; but He will or His whole plan for the redemption of His faithful people will have failed. That new nation will be called Beulah, as Isaiah 62:1-5 describes. Brought into being in one day; Isaiah 66:7-9.
DO I BRING TO THE MOMENT OF BIRTH AND NOT GIVE DELIVERY?

A great anwser to Hezakiahs lament..."This day is a day of distress and rebuke and disgrace, as when children come to the point of birth and there is no strength to deliver them" (Isa 37:3)

So many Christians have given up on natural Israel but little do they know God leaves no stone unturned!

God will refine and deliver!
 
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