CadyandZoe
Well-Known Member
Yes, that's right.That is not true. I assume when you say the next three chapters you mean the rest of chapter 9 as well as chapters 10 and 11?
I think a bit of investigation will reveal that Paul wrote this letter to a group of Jewish Christians who were returning to Rome after the Roman Emperor decreed that the Jewish people were able to return to Rome. Paul knew that these Jewish Christians would face opposition, just as he did, from his Jewish opponents. He sets out to answer objections to his gospel in the form of rhetorical questions beginning in chapter 5 and ending after chapter 11. The central focus of the entire epistle is the debate between the faction of Jewish Christians who believed that Christians needed to keep Moses and those Jewish Christians who knew otherwise.Romans 9:22
How can you say he was focused on the nation of Israel when he made it clear that "the objects of" God's "mercy, whom he prepared in advance for glory" were "called, not only from the Jews but also from the Gentiles"?
Chapters 9 through 11 answer the "Moses keepers" objection that God promised salvation to the Hebrews, and unless one entered into the people of God, i.e. the Hebrews, one can not be saved. In the context of that debate, Paul says, "whom he called, not only from the Jews but also from the Gentiles", weighing in on the side of those who believed that a Gentile did NOT need to keep Moses to be granted the blessing.
Again, speaking to the debate concerning whether or not a Gentile needs to enter into Israel to be saved, Paul argues his point from the Hebrew scriptures reminding them that Moses spoke of two distinct routes to justification: justification by works and justification by faith. Paul tells his Jewish opponents that even Moses spoke of justification by faith. Then he reminds them that "anyone who believes in him will never be put to shame." He concludes then, that "there is no difference between Jew and Gentile" (with regard to justification) the same Lord is Lord of all.Then there's this:
Romans 10:10-13
Is this focused on the nation of Israel? Absolutely not. It is focused on the fact that individuals who call on the name of the Lord will be saved and that includes both Jews and Gentiles. Did you somehow miss this when reading the next few chapters?
The Topic is still centered on Israel because the debate is over the question, "Does a Gentile need to keep Moses in order to be saved?" Do the Gentiles need to become like Ruth, entering into the Hebrew people?
Yes. Again, the rhetorical question is, "Did Israel stumble so as to fall?"Then there's this:
Romans 11:11-22
Is this passage focused on the nation of Israel? No. It has the same focus as the passage from Romans 10. It's all about individuals being saved by faith including both Jews and Gentiles. And Paul also talks about being cut off because of unbelief and made it clear that doesn't just apply to Jews, but also applies to Gentiles.
Paul is answering another objection to his Gospel. God promised to grant the Blessing to the Hebrews, a point he grants as given. And so why did not grant his blessing to the Hebrews? To that end, it wouldn't serve his argument to suggest that physicality doesn't matter. Physicality is an essential aspect of the idea that he just granted as true.In regards to salvation, he most certainly did argue that.
First of all, it is important for believers to know that God always keeps his promises. The fact that God will keep his promise to the Hebrews is important evidence that he will keep his promise to us. Secondly, God's promise to the Hebrews is the subtext of future events when God will vindicate his name.Repeatedly. You can see that very clearly not only in Romans 9:6-8, but also in passages like Romans 9:22-24, Romans 10:10-12 and Romans 11:11-22.
How do you think it matters exactly?
Paul hinted at this purpose earlier in chapter 2.
Romans 2:23 You who boast in the Law, through your breaking the Law, do you dishonor God? 24 For “the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles because of you,” just as it is written.
The backstory on this is found in the passage Paul quoted and the ancient beliefs concerning the gods.
Yahweh promised to be a god for Israel. This meant that Yahweh agreed to protect Israel from her enemies. But, because Israel became idolatrous, God allowed Israel to be taken captive into exile to live among the Gentiles. From the standpoint of the Gentiles, they concluded that the defeat of Israel indicated that Yahweh was weak, ineffectual, and impotent. He promised Israel to be her god, but he wasn't up to the task. For this reason, Yahweh tells Israel, "Because of you my name is being blasphemed among the Gentiles."
If the Hebrews no longer exist or if they don't return to the land, then God won't be able to make his name holy again. Physicality matters because God is being accused of not being able to keep a people for himself. And the only way to disprove this blaspheme is for him to defeat the enemies of Israel and the "gods" of the Gentiles in view of the Hebrew people.
My beliefs come from God's prophetic word. I was hoping that someday we would be able to get to the meat of the matter, but we can't seem to get past this point.How are you not saying that they are children BY physical descent when you believe one day those who natural descend from Israel will all be saved but you don't believe that about the people of any other nation?
I believe the prophetic word predicts a time in our future when God will bring famine and an army of fires against Israel. During that time, a call will go out to the people, urging them to come to Jerusalem to pray for the deliverance of Israel from her enemies, from the famine, and from the army of fires. Those who fear the Lord, will obey the call and come to Jerusalem. Those who don't obey the call will be destroyed. In this manner, the Hebrew people will be greatly reduced in number but all of those that remain in Jerusalem are God's sanctified ones.
Yes. I make that distinction because the Bible makes that distinction.And, are you implying here that you think there is a difference between "God's children" and "God's people"? If so, I can't take that seriously. That's complete nonsense.
I proved it with scripture. Take it or leave it. But you read it yourself.No, it does not. Not even close. That is something that you have made up.
Reread the first five verses. And also note that the term "Israel" is absent from the epistle to the Romans except for chapters 9,10 and 11.No, his focus was on what makes someone a true child of God and he goes on to make it clear that the basis for that is the same for both Jews and Gentiles, which is having faith like Abraham had. You claim that his focus was solely on Israel in Romans 9-11, but that is clearly wrong. It's as if Romans 10:10-12 and Romans 11:11-22 are not in your Bible.
The specific promise Paul mentioned in verse 4.What promise are you talking about exactly?
No. But we need to stay focused on the context in order to understand Paul's intent. And, we need to avoid superimposing other passages over the top of Romans 9.And should we ignore that he wrote elsewhere about the promises God made to Abraham being applied to Jesus and those who belong to Jesus, including Jew and Gentile believers?
Ethnicity doesn't matter when it comes to determining who are the children of promise. But Paul isn't answering that question in Romans 9. Paul is answering the question, "Why isn't every Hebrew a child of promise since God made a promise to the Hebrews?In what way do you think it matters then? The children of promise are only believers, right? Paul made that clear in Galatians 3:26-29. So, how exactly does ethnicity matter when it comes to determining who are the children of promise?