In 1 Corinthians 10, the "salvation" of Christians is said to be the anti-type to the deliverance from the house of bondage, and from God's wrath there, which the Jews experienced.
1. The Jews spread the blood of a lamb on the doorposts of their homes, and were spared from God's wrath--we are spared from God's wrath by the blood Jesus (called "our Passover Lamb") shed on the Cross.
2. The Jews were baptized into Moses in the Red Sea--believers are baptized into Christ.
3. The Jews ate manna, spiritual food--believers eat the communion.
However, after having been saved, and after having been baptized, and after having eaten spiritual food, these very same "saved" people sinned, so they fell under God's wrath, and did not inherit God's promise (today, this relates to the eternal life that is in Christ).
Therefore, when people say they are "saved", do they take these things into consideration--that what "saved" means is they're saved from slavery to sin ("the house of bondage", "he who sins is a slave of sin"), but not that they cannot ever again face wrath if they continue sinning despite having been "saved"? Isn't this the selfsame teaching as Hebrews 10?
1. The Jews spread the blood of a lamb on the doorposts of their homes, and were spared from God's wrath--we are spared from God's wrath by the blood Jesus (called "our Passover Lamb") shed on the Cross.
2. The Jews were baptized into Moses in the Red Sea--believers are baptized into Christ.
3. The Jews ate manna, spiritual food--believers eat the communion.
However, after having been saved, and after having been baptized, and after having eaten spiritual food, these very same "saved" people sinned, so they fell under God's wrath, and did not inherit God's promise (today, this relates to the eternal life that is in Christ).
Therefore, when people say they are "saved", do they take these things into consideration--that what "saved" means is they're saved from slavery to sin ("the house of bondage", "he who sins is a slave of sin"), but not that they cannot ever again face wrath if they continue sinning despite having been "saved"? Isn't this the selfsame teaching as Hebrews 10?