Where was Jesus between his death and resurrection?

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Taken

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Scott Downey, post: 1921171, member:

Can't be any clearer truth here, that God sent Christ who then came down from heaven, was killed, resurrected and then went back into heaven.

God SENT “His WORD” to earth, in the Likeness…AS a (Jewish) man….and revealed to CALL Gods word…JESUS…Son of man…AND at some point in the future that Son of man WOULD BE CALLED, the Son of God.
(Prophecy, and an easy to over look HINT).

God Declared while His Word was ON EARTH…God would be “A” Father unto Him. And to GOD, His Word would be to God…”A”Son.

On the day of Jesus’ water baptism … (some 30 years after Jesus was SENT to Earth..)..
God from Heaven revealed THAT DAY was the DAY the Son of God came forth out from God….

WHAT really happened ON THAT DAY?
WHAT aside from Gods WORD sent to earth, 30 years earlier….ON THAT DAY what did God SEND TO EARTH?

remember…Gods word was SENT…humbled…a SERVANT…

ON THAT DAY…The SPIRIT of God was SENT from Heaven into the BODY God prepared for His Word.

Remember….A humbled servant is one thing.
AlMIGHTY POWER is completely different than a Humbled Servant.

And LATER we LEARN….the SPIRIT OF GOD….IS CHRIST…

The Word of God….is God.
The Spirit of God….is God.

AND…the Word of God…God named JESUS.
AND…the Spirit of God…God titled CHRIST.

And …the POWER of God IS His Spirit…whom God TITLED….CHRIST.

WHO or what Human can SEE Gods Spirit? None.

So Jesus walks about…SPEAKING…Gods Word for men to hear.

AND…meanwhile…Christ (the power of God) performs a few miracles…and people SEE the miracles…BUT NOT HIS SPIRIT.

Because God IS invisible…human’s can ONLY SEE….the results, the reflections of His WORKS….and ABLE BECAUSE of HIS POWER.

Remember when JESUS asked…(His disciples ) whom MEN thought He was? Then asked whom THEY thought He was? THEY DIDN’T KNOW the answer…They didn’t Know what they could not SEE.

The answer was….He IS THE CHRIST….and God told Simon Barjona …and then Simon Barjona repeated the Answer to JESUS….and the ears of the other disciples heard the answer….AND JESUS commended Simon Barjona….and notified Him God had given Him the answer…and then JESUS extended a blessing unto…..Simon Barjona . No…
To “Simon”….whom Jesus had surnamed…PETER.

Jesus’ prepared body was hung on the cross and died.

Christ…the power of God DID NOT DIE.
Jesus’ living soul IN his body DID NOT DIE.

USING the incorrect terms…only adds more confusion to those ALREADY lacking in Spiritual Understanding….as they are trying and failing to MAKE Logical mindful sense…of Spiritual things…

God bless you,
Glory to God,

Taken
 

Taken

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@Johann

You are offering excellent responses to questions asked….as many questions have been asked and answered…

Be blessed your answers may be of benefit to those standing by listening….and do not be alarmed or discouraged they have no benefit for the one asking.

God bless you.
Glory to God,

Taken
 
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Johann

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@Johann

You are offering excellent responses to questions asked….as many questions have been asked and answered…

Be blessed your answers may be of benefit to those standing by listening….and do not be alarmed or discouraged they have no benefit for the one asking.

God bless you.
Glory to God,

Taken
God bless you for your kind words of encouragement @Taken since I need it.
Shalom and grace to you and family.
Johann.
 
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Ronald Nolette

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Ronald

Lets assume your understanding of these matters for a moment.

How can the "spirit" go back to God who gave it, (Ecc. 12:7) and yet be imprisoned in hades?

Your reference to Jesus' parable concerning Lazarus is making you even more confused!

I suggest you study the theme of Spirit in the OT and then you will be better equipt to deal with the theme of Spirit in the NT.

Happy to help anytime

F2F
Well Lazarus was not a parable but a true account. Language, Construct and understanding of the day all say it is so. And then of course there was Jesus saying "There was a man"... No parable is constructed even vaguely similar to this true account.

Well as we are NT believers and have a much better understanding of what spirit, soul, and body are- I don't need to restudy the human spirit back in the OT. In the OT until about the time of David, they all thought you died and went non existent until you were resurrected ala Daniel 12 to life or damnation. We know that is not so now.
 

Ronald Nolette

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You’re forgetting vs.18. This was after He was “made alive,” ie., His resurrection.

Jesus was dead for 3 days. Then, on the 3rd day, He was resurrected, ie., “made alive in the spirit.”
That was His body, But it is not "in" but "by". Those spirits were humans who have long been physically dead. YOu can't preach to people who are in a state of total death or ceased to exist until the resurrection.

Jesus went to hell (the place of the dead) and preached to teh spirits imprisoned since before the flood. He did that while His body was dead.

But even if not- He still went and preached to the spirits of those who were disobedient before the flood. You cannot preach to dead people but those who are alive.

Remember what Jesus said:

Matthew 22:28-33

King James Version

28 Therefore in the resurrection whose wife shall she be of the seven? for they all had her.
29 Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.
30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.
31 But as touching the resurrection of the dead, have ye not read that which was spoken unto you by God, saying,
32 I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? God is not the God of the dead, but of the living.
 

Ronald Nolette

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Only God is immortal.
As for Jesus preaching to those who died in Noah's day. It's true. He did. But not in person. He preached to those who are now dead through the Spirit that was in Noah. He didn't give them a second chance, no more than anyone else.
Who said anything about a second chance? All God said was that Jesus went and preached to the spirits of those who died before teh flood and were imprisoned. If you do not have a conscious existence you cannot be im prison now can you.
 

Taken

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What qualified Christ to be a sin bearer?

Christ was NOT revealed to bear mans sin.
The prepared body of the Son of God was sent to bear the sin of man.

How did Christ bare your sins in his body?

Christ didn’t.
Jesus did.
HOW…was He TOOK the sins of the world UPON His Body.

[Once again, how was sin represented in him?

Sin was NOT “IN” Him…
Sin was UPON His body…and once that was Accomplished….He gave his body with the worlds SIN upon it…..unto DEATH.

Failure to understand those pesky little words … such as…..as, is, in, out, upon, with, without, etc. will NOT lead you to the whole truth.
 
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Johann

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Christ was NOT revealed to bear mans sin.
The prepared body of the Son of God was sent to bear the sin of man.



Christ didn’t.
Jesus did.
HOW…was He TOOK the sins of the world UPON His Body.



Sin was NOT “IN” Him…
Sin was UPON His body…and once that was Accomplished….He gave his body with the worlds SIN upon it…..unto DEATH.

Failure to understand those pesky little words … such as…..as, is, in, out, upon, with, without, etc. will NOT lead you to the whole truth.
Well said, little foxes----

J.
 
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face2face

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It doesn't matter! Jesus went and preached to them whether they were souls or spirits but given the context- it was not angels but humans!
The word "spirits" never signifies disembodied persons in Scriptures.

So what is that Scripture teaching?

F2F
 

face2face

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Christ was NOT revealed to bear mans sin.
“He himself bore our sins” in his body on the cross, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness; “by his wounds you have been healed.” 1 Peter 2:24

How were your sins represented in his body?
 

face2face

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Jesus is our faithful High Priest F2F.
And what was the qualification of becoming a High Priest?

For every high priest chosen from among men is appointed to act on behalf of men in relation to God, to offer gifts and sacrifices for sins. Hebrews 5:1

Why was it necessary for Jesus to be taken from the sinful line of men?

F2F
 

face2face

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Well Lazarus was not a parable but a true account.
No sorry, it was the final parable, of a number of parable's however the last solely directed at the Pharisees, using their false teaching against them.

This is well documented and only those who hold to mythology make it literal.

F2F
 

face2face

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Sin was NOT “IN” Him…
Again, how was sin represented in the body of the Lord?

God condemned sin in his body - so how was it represented there?

Think Taken!
 
J

Johann

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“He himself bore our sins” in his body on the cross, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness; “by his wounds you have been healed.” 1 Peter 2:24

How were your sins represented in his body?

And what was the qualification of becoming a High Priest?

For every high priest chosen from among men is appointed to act on behalf of men in relation to God, to offer gifts and sacrifices for sins. Hebrews 5:1

Why was it necessary for Jesus to be taken from the sinful line of men?

F2F
You provide your answer first, and I'll decide if I agree.
That is how it is going to work.

J.
 
J

Johann

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Again, how was sin represented in the body of the Lord?

God condemned sin in his body - so how was it represented there?

Think Taken!
You are mistaken.

1Pe 2:24 Moshiach, who himself NASAH (bore, carried away, Isa 53:4, 12) ES PEYSHA’EINU (our transgressions, our sins YESHAYAH 53:5,8,12) in geviyyato [BERESHIS 47:18; YESHAYAH 53:5] on HAETZ [DEVARIM 21:23] that, having become niftarim (deceased ones) to chattoteinu, we might become Kol Chai (all living) to Tzidkanut (Righteousness); UVACHAVURATO NIRPA LANU ("by whose wounds you were healed” YESHAYAH 53:5).

Bare our sins (anēnegken tas hamartias hēmōn). Second aorist active indicative of anapherō, common verb of bringing sacrifice to the altar. Combination here of Isa_53:12; Deu_21:23. Jesus is the perfect sin offering (Heb_9:28). For Christ’s body (sōma) as the offering see 1Co_11:24. “Here St. Peter puts the Cross in the place of the altar” (Bigg).

1Pe_2:24 "He Himself bore our sins" This is obviously from Isa_53:4; Isa_53:11-12. The term "bore" is used of a sacrifice in Lev_14:20 and Jas_2:21. This is the essence of the vicarious, substitutionary atonement (cf. Mar_10:45; Rom_5:6; Rom_5:8; Rom_5:10; 2Co_5:21).

Read Leviticus.

J.
 

face2face

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You provide your answer first, and I'll decide if I agree.
That is how it is going to work.

J.
I've shown you so much J.

Death had dominion over Christ
He was taken from among men because they were held by the Power of Death
He suffered in the flesh and was numbered with the transgressors
While dead he totally ceased to exist until God raised him out of death

For God to have victory over sin He needed to remove Sin's power

What is Sins Power J.?

Hebrews 2:14-17
Romans 8:1-3
1 Corinth 15
Romans 6:23
The list goes on and on and on....

F2F
 

face2face

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You are mistaken.

1Pe 2:24 Moshiach, who himself NASAH (bore, carried away, Isa 53:4, 12) ES PEYSHA’EINU (our transgressions, our sins YESHAYAH 53:5,8,12) in geviyyato [BERESHIS 47:18; YESHAYAH 53:5] on HAETZ [DEVARIM 21:23] that, having become niftarim (deceased ones) to chattoteinu, we might become Kol Chai (all living) to Tzidkanut (Righteousness); UVACHAVURATO NIRPA LANU ("by whose wounds you were healed” YESHAYAH 53:5).

Bare our sins (anēnegken tas hamartias hēmōn). Second aorist active indicative of anapherō, common verb of bringing sacrifice to the altar. Combination here of Isa_53:12; Deu_21:23. Jesus is the perfect sin offering (Heb_9:28). For Christ’s body (sōma) as the offering see 1Co_11:24. “Here St. Peter puts the Cross in the place of the altar” (Bigg).

1Pe_2:24 "He Himself bore our sins" This is obviously from Isa_53:4; Isa_53:11-12. The term "bore" is used of a sacrifice in Lev_14:20 and Jas_2:21. This is the essence of the vicarious, substitutionary atonement (cf. Mar_10:45; Rom_5:6; Rom_5:8; Rom_5:10; 2Co_5:21).

Read Leviticus.

J.
No you are mistaken J.

I ask you again!

How was sin represented in the Lord's body?

If you can't answer then say so - be honest!

F2F
 
J

Johann

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Death had dominion over Christ
This is terribly wrong-I fear you promulgate another gospel.

Death did not have dominion over Christ. Scripture consistently teaches that while Christ died, He rose from the dead, demonstrating His victory over death.

1. Romans 6:9 (NKJV):
"Knowing that Christ, having been raised from the dead, dies no more. Death no longer has dominion over Him."

This verse explicitly states that death no longer has dominion over Christ. His resurrection signifies that death's power was broken.

2. Revelation 1:18 (NKJV):
“I am He who lives, and was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore. Amen. And I have the keys of Hades and of Death.”

Jesus declares that He holds the authority over death and Hades, indicating that He conquered them through His resurrection.

3. 1 Corinthians 15:55-57 (NKJV):
“O Death, where is your sting? O Hades, where is your victory? The sting of death is sin, and the strength of sin is the law. But thanks be to God, who gives us the victory through our Lord Jesus Christ.”

This passage celebrates the victory over death that Jesus secured, emphasizing that death could not hold Him.

4. Acts 2:24 (NKJV):
“Whom God raised up, having loosed the pains of death, because it was not possible that He should be held by it.”

Peter, speaking about Jesus’ resurrection, clearly states that death could not hold Him. Christ's power was greater than death.

In conclusion, death had no lasting dominion over Christ. Though He died, He overcame death through His resurrection, securing eternal life for all who believe in Him.

Error here.
I don't have the time to go through your other erroneous assertions, see you tomorrow.

Messiah is NOT a created being, nor a mere thought/concept in the mind of YHVH.

J.
 

face2face

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This is terribly wrong-I fear you promulgate another gospel.

Death did not have dominion over Christ. Scripture consistently teaches that while Christ died, He rose from the dead, demonstrating His victory over death.

1. Romans 6:9 (NKJV):
"Knowing that Christ, having been raised from the dead, dies no more. Death no longer has dominion over Him."

This verse explicitly states that death no longer has dominion over Christ. His resurrection signifies that death's power was broken.

How can you show a verse that teaches you, death "had" dominion over Christ prior to his resurrection and then say "death did NOT have dominion over Christ

Do you willingly falsify the Word of God for your own gain J.

That's precisely what it looks like from over here

F2F