Wick Stick
Well-Known Member
...by that name. In the other thread, we're looking at a passage where Jesus references Satan, and devils, and evil spirits. It's not a slam-dunk that those are fallen angels (that would be petitio principii). But it's not a given that they're not, either (and a negative premise can't be proven).It's the only instances in the Master's ministry where he references angels.
If we define fallen angels as supernatural-beings-who-formerly-inhabited-heaven-and-served-God-but-no-longer-do... then no. However, that's a bad definition, mainstream or not. A better one requires some explanation...Do you think this is actually the origin story for fallen angels? Personally, I don’t. Most scholars agree that the Old Testament is largely silent on the topic, which is why it’s so important to carefully consider the context of any references found in the New Testament.
There's a metaphor (I know what those are too!) that runs through the entire Bible. From Genesis to Revelation, the earth is (sometimes) an emblem of the common people, while the sun/moon/stars refer to the governors that are "over" them. With the knowledge that stars and angels are often the same thing in Hebrew, this makes "angels" the lesser governors - the heads of clans and rulers of single cities.
So then, a "fallen angel" is nothing more than the head of a city or clan who has rejected God in favor of some other gods or emperor, or to worship himself (like Pharoah).
So yes, there are some fallen angels throughout the Old Testament, but they aren't anything supernatural in the original meaning of the text. (But the New Testament doesn't always use the Old Testament within the original meaning.)
Kind of off-topic, but... a purpose (the purpose?) of mythology is word-smithing. If you don't have a word for something intangible - loyalty, love, or lawfulness - you make up a story about someone who typifies that attribute. Tell the story a few times, and the name you give to your character will be understood as a new word.The vernacular of the time didn’t give them the language we might use today. If something was unknown to them, how could they possibly describe it with certainty?
By that name? Nowhere. But most of us squint at these two verses and think the latter is a reference to the former.Where is Lucifer mentioned in the NT?
Isaiah 14: How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning!
Luke 10: I saw Satan fall as lightning from heaven
Only way? No. One of the best ways? Yes.No, I believe studying each occurrence in its context is the only way to gain an understanding.
Studying Greek word usage across just the New Testament isn't enough, though. Word meaning in the NT is best determined by looking at usage in the Greek text of the Old Testament (the LXX), and also seeking the meaning of the underlying Hebrew/Aramaic word.
It would make the verses immediately clearer, at the expense of taking a layer of meaning away from them.I'll give you an example.
1 Timothy 3:11 "Their wives likewise must be dignified, not slanderers (devils), but sober-minded, faithful in all things."
Why did the translators not use the word devils here?
Titus 2:3 "Older women likewise are to be reverent in behavior, not slanderers (devils) or slaves to much wine. They are to teach what is good."
And here?
The next question you would ask yourself is what if they used the words slanderer, false accuser and adversary for every occurrence?
What would that do for this study?