Here's a few.
What different message do you get ?
And every single translation that renders John 1:1 that way is a product of trinitarian bias.
The only way to determine what John said is to examine the Greek and understand why the divine name was not used in the Greek Scriptures, when it is seen clearly almost 7,000 times in the Hebrew writings, used by God’s servants who held no traditions or superstitions about the reverent use of the divine name.
Hebrew Bible writers addressed their God by name, ruling out any doubt about who was their God.
All of the writers of the OT were Jews, raised with a monotheistic view of their God that would never have allowed the worship of any other god. It was God’s Law.....Yet the NT, translated by trinitarians into English made sure that Jesus was the god they worship and any verse that looked like it might fight with the trinity was adjusted in translation accordingly.
Two main adjustments were made that become obvious when you study the Greek as opposed to the accepted English translations, which is why an Interlinear and a good concordance is necessary when doing a thorough study of what the Bible actually says, rather than than what a corrupted “church” system want you to believe.
In all of your examples, the definite article used to identify Yahweh is ignored....and the use of capital letters is also misleading, as there are no upper and lower case letters in Greek.
Both of those things give Bible readers the wrong information.
John 1:1 in Greek to English reads.....
In
en the beginning
archē was
eimi the
ho Word
logos, and
kai the
ho Word
logos was
eimi with
pros ·ho God
theos, and
kai the
ho Word
logos was
eimi God
theos.”
That little word “ho” means “the” (the definite article) and we can see that it identified “the Word” (ho logos) but when it came to “the Word was with God” (ho theos) you can see that the “ho” in relation to God is ignored, whilst the second mention of “theos” is without the definite article.
If John 1:1 was correctly translated, it should read..
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with Yahweh, and the Word was divine”.
“Theos” In the Bible is not a word that only means “THE God” of the Jews, who at that time was nameless as the Jews had stopped uttering it even before Jesus came on the earthly scene.
Jesus said he had come to ‘make his Father’s name known’ (John 17:25-26) because the Jews had no right to remove it from their speech. They were told right from the outset that God’s name was to be “mentioned” throughout their generations. (Exodus 3:15) In the Lord’s Prayer, it was the first thing Jesus mentioned....
And if you check a Hebrew Interlinear, you will see the Tetragrammaton clearly in the Hebrew text.....but not in the English translation, where “the LORD” is substituted......but in most (but not all) English translations God’s name is missing altogether, following the disobedient Jews, rather than obeying Jesus who said he had come to make his Father’s name known.....not his own.
When the devil is at the back of a deception, he makes sure that the truth is so unpopular, that no one will question it......we must question everything.