Ezekiel 39:7 So will I make my holy name known in the midst of my people Israel; and I will not let them pollute my holy name any more: and the heathen shall know that I am the LORD, the Holy One in Israel.
Read the context of what God is saying to Israel and Judah in the light of:
1. what He had said to the house of Israel and the house of Judah in
Eze 36:16-38, in
Eze ch 37, and again in
Eze 39:23-29; and
2. what He said about Gog and Magog gathering against them
after all the above had been fulfilled.
Ezekiel 39:7 is in that same context.
In your opinion, has this already been fulfilled? Or is it yet to be fulfilled?
IMO it began taking place in Christ and will be ultimately fulfilled by Christ when He returns.
Then ask yourself, if God is hiding His face from someone, would it be someone that is still polluting His holy name? Or would it be someone who no longer is polluting His holy name?
IMO you have
Ezekiel 39:22-29 taking place after it already took place because you have it taking place
after the judgment of Gog.
Read the context of what God is saying to Israel and Judah in the light of:
1. what He had said to the house of Israel and the house of Judah in
Eze 36:16-38, in
Eze ch 37, and again in
Eze 39:23-29; and
2. what He said about Gog and Magog gathering against them
after all the above had already been fulfilled - the gathering against the camp of the saints.
Ezekiel 39:7 is in that same context. It's talking about how the judgment of Gog will honor God's holy name.
In Ezekiel 39:7 God is only repeating what He already said in chapters 36 & 37 about restoration for Israel
- and He repeats this same promise again in Ezekiel 39:23-29 after telling Israel about how Gog will come upon them following this restoration He was promising them.
It's all one prophecy.
I can't repeat it again also because from what I can see, in your opinion
Ezekiel 39:22-29 will take place after it already took place. In your view God does not repeat a promise He makes in the first part of a prophecy, again at the end of that same prophecy.
I see God's promises of restoration for Israel as ONE and once, not once before Gog comes against Israel, and then again after Gog comes against Israel. You see a natural chronology in the text following the judgment of Gog. I see a theme that began in chapter 36.
Ezekiel 37:23 Neither shall they defile themselves any more with their idols, nor with their detestable things, nor with any of their transgressions: but I will save them out of all their dwellingplaces, wherein they have sinned, and will cleanse them: so shall they be my people, and I will be their God.
Ezekiel 37:25 And they shall dwell in the land that I have given unto Jacob my servant, wherein your fathers have dwelt; and they shall dwell therein, even they, and their children, and their children's children for ever: and my servant David shall be their prince for ever.
Ezekiel 37:23
I will save them out of all their dwellingplaces.
Ezekiel 37:25
And they shall dwell in the land that I have given unto Jacob my servant.
What do you think will come first - dwelling in the land, or God saving them out of all their dwelling places?
Verse 23 seems to mean they are no longer polluting His holy name at this point once He cleanses them. Which presents a conflict with Ezekiel 39:7 if Ezekiel 37:25 is already fulfilled before Ezekiel 39:7 is fulfilled.
Does Ezekiel state or imply that Ezekiel 37:25 will be fulfilled AFTER Ezekiel 39:7 is fulfilled?
The prophecy in Ezekiel chapters 36 to 39 is ONE WHOLE:
- from the history of how and why it came about that Israel was scattered among the nations, to why God will bring them out from the nations into the land and cleanse them from their sins (chapter 36)
- to how once in the land, God will ALSO join the 12 tribes into one nation after having been split into two nations - since the days following Solomon's death - and until the days the prophecy is fulfilled (chapter 37)
- to how Gog and Magog will come against them
following their restoration, and be judged (chapters 38 & 39)
- and to how God's Holy name will be exalted by all this (chapters 36 & 39).
Throw the chronology of the sentences out the window, with the verse and chapter numbers that were inserted after 1200 AD, and find the THEME. Then you will see God repeating the same promises made in Ezekiel chs. 36 & 37, in Ezekiel chapter 39:7 and again later, when He closes the prophecy in chapter 39.
Verse 25 has them dwelling in their land forever, and clearly His servant David is meaning Christ. Ezekiel 38-39 also have them dwelling in their land except Christ is not yet present.
Revelation 20 has the saints dwelling in their land and Gog's armies gathering against them. According to the above Christ is not yet present because He isn't mentioned as being present in Revelation 20:7-10 either.
Ezekiel 37:25 requires that they are in their land. And that they are there forever. And that Christ is there among them
Revelation 20:4-10 requires the same.
Some argue that the land meant is not literal land. Yet the text plainly says it is the same land He has given unto Jacob His servant, wherein their fathers have dwelt. The land He gave to Jacob His servant, was it literal land or not?
IMO the land in the new
earth is literal.