First of all - where does the bible say there WEREN'T children in these households. Peter said that the promise was for them AND their CHILDREN (Acts 2:39). WHY are the Early Church Father UNANIMOUS in stating that this was a teaching passed down by the Apostles themselves??
Secondly - we're NOT talking about John's Baptism - but the Baptism of CHRIST. This is the Baptism of regeneration - of REBIRTH (John 3:5).
Finally - as to Ezekiel's prophecy - it parallel's what Peter wrote about BAPTISM (1 Pet. 3:21).
Sorry - but you don't have a Scriptural or historical leg to stand on here . . .
John 3:5 is not a reference to Christian baptism, it's a reference to Ezekiel's prophecy. How / why would a Jewish teacher of Israel know of Christian baptism? By the reaction of Jesus, Jesus expected Nicodemus to know the answer.
It's being "Born of the Spirit" that counts, the new life brought forth by the Holy Spirit.
1 Corinthians 12:13 - We were all baptized by one Holy Spirit. And so we are formed into one body. It didn’t matter whether we were Jews or Gentiles, slaves or free people. We were all given the same Spirit to drink.
Also, 1 Peter 3:21, Αντίτυπο in Greek means "antitype" and an antitype is a symbol. It's not the water that does the saving, it's symbolic. Those under the OT knew the blood of the animals didn't remove sin but they served as an antitype of the perfect sacrifice to come.
Anyways, I hope you all have a great day, I'm heading out of town, be back in a few days. I've said my peace with this thread, I'll see you guys around. Good night :)
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