But you have not refuted the 'junk'. it still stands. Nor do the verses you cite prove penal substitution either. For example, Isa 53:6:
Looking at the broader context:
Isaiah 53:5 "But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed."
Isaiah 53:6 "All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all."
Verse 5 - Our transgressions caused Christ to suffer, be wounded, NOT our transgressions were transferred to Christ.
Verse 5 - Our iniquities caused Christ to suffer, be bruised, NOT our iniquities transferred to Christ.
Same idea in verse 6 - Our iniquities laid upon Him means our iniquities caused Christ to suffer, NOT our iniquities transferred to Christ. How do I know this? Because the same language is used about Ezekiel in Ezekiel 4:4-6:
"Lie thou also upon thy left side, and lay the iniquity of the house of Israel upon it: according to the number of the days that thou shalt lie upon it thou shalt bear their iniquity. For I have laid upon thee the years of their iniquity, according to the number of the days, three hundred and ninety days: so shalt thou bear the iniquity of the house of Israel. And when thou hast accomplished them, lie again on thy right side, and thou shalt bear the iniquity of the house of Judah forty days: I have appointed thee each day for a year."
Obviously this passage does NOT mean the sins of Israel were transferred to Ezekiel and he was punished (lay on his side) for the sins of Israel. If Israel's sins were transferred to Ezekiel and Ezekiel suffered for their sin, then Israel would not need Christ. Then we today could transfer our sins to another man, that man suffer for us and we would not need Christ either. But the idea of Israel's sins being laid to Ezekiel, that Ezekiel would bear their sins simply means Ezekiel would suffer for Israel's sins, sins that Ezekiel was not responsible for. In the same manner, Isa 53:6 means Christ suffered for the iniquities of man, sins man committed that Christ was not responsible for. Again, neither passage means sins of man was transferred to Ezekiel or Christ.
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1 Peter 2:24. Some just read PART of this verse "Who his own self bare our sins" and claim this means our sins were imputed/transferred to Christ. The whole phrase says:
"Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree,"
HOW did He bare our sins? In His body on the tree. "His body on the tree" refers to Christ's sacrifice on the cross. Therefore He bare our sins by His sacrifice of His body NOT by ours sins being transferred to Him. The verse about about what Christ's body accomplished (our sacrifice on the tree) and NOT about what was done to His body (our sins transferred to His body).
1 Peter 2:25 refers back to Isaiah 53:4-6
4 - Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.
5 - But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed.
6 - All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
THe context says Christ "borne our griefs" and "carried our sorrows". Again, these two phrases do NOT mean our sorrows and griefs were transferred to Christ. So what does "borne" and "carried" mean?
Matthew tells us in his account in Matthew 8:14-17 where he quotes Isaiah in v17:
14 - And when Jesus was come into Peter's house, he saw his wife's mother laid, and sick of a fever.
15 - And he touched her hand, and the fever left her: and she arose, and ministered unto them.
16 - When the even was come, they brought unto him many that were possessed with devils: and he cast out the spirits with his word, and healed all that were sick:
17 - That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, Himself took our infirmities, and bare our sicknesses.
Notice the sickness "left her" and the demons were "cast out". The sickness nor the demons were transferred/imputed to Christ but instead were removed, cast out. Therefore Isaiah would be understood the same way in that our infirmities and sicknesses are removed, cast out NOT imputed to Christ. Therefore when Peter (having quoted Isaiah as Matthew), says Christ "bare" (borne) our sins, it means Christ removed them, cast them off by what His body accomplished on the tree NOT imputed to His body.
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2 Corinthians 5:21 "For he hath made him to be sin for us,..."
The underlying Greek word for sins (hamartia) also carries the idea of sacrifice or offering for sins, (see Hebrews 10:6, Hebrews 10:8). This Greek word is translated many times in the LXX as "sacrifice for sins". Hence Christ was a sacrifice for our sins and NOT our sins transferred to Christ.
BEFORE Christ's sacrifice on the cross and AFTER His sacrifice on the cross, Christ was "undefiled, separated from sinners" (Hebrews 7:26) and was "without blemish and without spot" (1 Peter 1:19). Hence Christ was not "sin", never a receptacle for our sin but an offering/sacrifice for our sin.
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Sin nor righteousness is transferred from one person to another meaning no penal substitution, no original sin.