Salvation Through Baptism ???

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Tong2020

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Are you a member of the church of the living God?
If you are referring to the house/household of God spoken of in 1 Tim. 3:15, then my answer is yes. How about you now answering my questions? They aren't too difficult for you to answer, aren't they?

At the time Paul wrote that passage to Timothy, where do you say one can find the house/household of God, the church of the living God?

At the time of the apostles, what do you read in scriptures about the church, was it called by a single name?

So, why do you say it is the Roman Catholic church?


Tong
R0889
 

JunChosen

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I have no problem with what is written in John 6:44. But I don't see that as a criterion by which man can be saved. What Jesus said there pertains to why or how man can come to Him, which is, with the Father's drawing him. That is not a criterion by which man can be saved, but a working of God in relation to His saving.

Of course you have no problem with John 6:44 for it is Scripture. If you have faith why then do you need to exercise it? You will not need to for the Father will draw you which of course, is the only criteria for any individual to become saved. And, that is God's relation to salvation!

Somehow I gather here that you do not believe that God saves us through faith. For which I disagree. It is your opinion that I am not understanding Ephesians 2:8-9. I think it is the other way around. For the verse is plain and simple:

No, I don't believe God saves through faith, and that is one of many doctrines not as plain and simple, that these two said verses are not understood.

What is your understanding of the passage?

1) For by grace (love)
2) Are you saved through faith (whose faith, man's? No way! Yourself have admitted it is God that saves)
3) And that not of yourselves (here, in black and white, is the answer)
4) It is the gift of God (through no merits of man and undeserved)
5) Not of works (faith)
6) Lest any man should boast (that man somehow wants to have some kind of credit to have a part in his salvation)


Somehow I gather here that you do not believe that God saves us through faith. For which I disagree. It is your opinion that I am not understanding Ephesians 2:8-9. I think it is the other way around. For the verse is plain and simple:

You got it right that I don't believe God saves through faith! Faith is a gift from Him to us, besides it being a work.

Also, I must say that you ought to read carefully what Titus 3:5 says:

Oh, I do understand perfectly well what God had conveyed in Titus 3:5. Just because you don't understand does not mean some of us don't.

Or what is it there that you want me to understand which I you think I don't? Tell me so I could consider it.

Titus 3:5

1) "Not by works of righteousness" (funny how the word 'works' keeps popping up)
2) "which we have done" (works that we did)
3) "but according to his mercy" (love)
4) "He saved us by the washing of regeneration" (washing = baptism/baptizo)
5) "renewing of the Holy Spirit" (renewal, a complete change in us)


I never claimed that it is man who performs the washing of regeneration, which you correctly said is God's work. As I said, you ought to read carefully what Titus 3:5 says.

Does my expounding of Titus 3:5 above suffice or do you have a better explanation?

To God Be The Glory
 

user

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Note to everyone that believeth, not to everyone that is water baptized.


Just before Jesus ascended into heaven He commanded His disciples to go into all the world, to preach the gospel, to make disciples, and to baptize them...

Matthew 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

He expected all believers to be baptized, and He promised salvation to those who believed and were baptized...

Mark 16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.


The Pharisees “rejected the counsel of God” by refusing John’s baptism...

Luke 7:30 But the Pharisees and lawyers rejected the counsel of God against themselves, being not baptized of him.

And you will be guilty of the same if you refuse the Lord’s baptism.


The church in the Book of Acts carried out the Lord’s expectation and command baptism. In the first sermon of the church, Peter commanded everyone to be baptized in the name of Jesus...

Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

Acts 2:41 Then they that gladly received his word were baptized:


When the Samaritans believed the preaching of Philip they too were baptized in the name of Jesus...

Acts 8:12 But when they believed Philip preaching the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women.
Acts 8:16 (For as yet he was fallen upon none of them: only they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.)


The Ethiopian eunuch, Saul of Tarsus, Cornelius, Lydia of Thyatira, the Philippian jailer, the Corinthians, and John’s disciples at Ephesus were all baptized when they heard and believed the preaching of the gospel (Acts 8:35-38; 9:18; 10:47-48; 16:15; 16:33; 18:8; 19:5).
Peter commanded Cornelius and his household to be baptized in the name of the Lord” (Acts 10:47-48).

Ananias commanded Paul to be baptized in the name of the Lord (Acts 22:16).

Peter did not tell them it was optional - he commended them to be baptized.

The Lord gave COMMANDMENT to baptize in Matthew 28:19.


BTW, notice in Acts chapter two those men "BELIEVED" Peter and asked "What shall we do? Notice Peter did NOT say, "well I see that you all now believe, therefore you need DO NOTHING but go home and be warmed and filled."

NOPE! Peter did NOT give YOUR easy Believeism message, but he stood with THE TWELVE and said in response how to be saved...

Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
Acts 2:39 For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.
 
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BreadOfLife

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Surely scriptures says that the church is the pillar and foundation of truth.

1 Tim 3:15 but if I am delayed, I write so that you may know how you ought to conduct yourself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth. (NKJV)

1 Tim. 3:15 But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth. (Douay)


According to that passage, the house of God is the church of the living God. Nowhere does it says that the church is the Roman Catholic church.

Now you ask me, which church is it? My answer is the same as what that passage says. It's the church of the living God. Now if you expect a name like Roman Catholic church, or Baptist church, and so forth, I don't think it was given a name like so in scriptures.

At the time Paul wrote that passage to Timothy, where do you say one can find the house/household of God, the church of the living God? At the time of the apostles, what do you read in scriptures about the church, was it called by a single name?

So, why do you say it is the Roman Catholic church?

Tong
R0886
How can you say you are teaching what is in scriptures regarding that, when scriptures does not teach that the church is the Roman Catholic church?
WHO said it was the “Roman” Catholic Church.
There is only “The Catholic Church”.

“Roman” simply refers to the Liturgical rite – of which there are some TWENTY others – ALL which comprise “The Catholic church”.
There is the Melkite Rite, the Maronite, Byzantine, Roman/Latin, Coptic, etc. – and they are ALL in communion with each other. So – if you’re going to be an anti-Catholic – try NOT to be an ignorant one . . .

Now – to answer your question – as far as Christianity goes, there was ONLY the Catholic Church in the first 10 centuries of Church history. NONE of the Protestant sects existed yet – not the Baptists, nor the Lutherans nor the Presbyterians nor the “Non-denominational” Evangelical sects.

We read about this “Catholic Church” in the Letter to the Smyrnaeans, written by FIRST century Bishop of Antioch and student of the Apostle John, Ignatius:

Ignatius of Antioch
See that ye all follow the bishop, even as Jesus Christ does the Father, and the presbytery as ye would the apostles; and reverence the deacons, as being the institution of God. Let no man do anything connected with the Church without the bishop. Let that be deemed a proper Eucharist, which is [administered] either by the bishop, or by one to whom he has entrusted it. Wherever the bishop shall appear, there let the multitude of the people also be; even as, wherever Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church (Epistle to the Smyrnaeans 8 [A.D. 107]).

So, when Paul says that the Church is the “pillar and foundation of truth” – he is talking about the ONLY Church that existed.
 
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Illuminator

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You cannot generalize that with Paul nor with James. Doing so would also lead to error.

Tong
R0880
I will break it down with precision and analysis of the meaning of Greek words:

Rom. 3:20,28; Gal. 2:16,21; 3:2,5,10; Eph. 2:8-9 – many Protestants err in their understanding of what Paul means by “works of the law” in his teaching on justification. Paul’s teaching that we are not justified by “works of the law” refer to the law of Moses or to any legal system that makes God our debtor. They do not refer to good works done in grace with faith in Christ. This makes sense when we remember that Paul’s mission was to teach that salvation was also for the Gentiles who were not subject to the “works of the law.” Here is the proof:

James 2:24 – compare the verse “a man is justified by works and not by faith alone” to Gal. 2:16 – “a man is not justified by works of the law,” and Rom. 3:20,28 – “no human being will be justified in His sight by works of the law.” James 2:24 appears to be inconsistent with Gal. 2:16 and Rom. 3:20,28 until one realizes that the Word of God cannot contradict itself.

This means that the “works” in James 2:24 are different from the “works of the law in Gal. 2:16 and Rom. 3:20,28. James is referring to “good works” (e.g.,clothing the naked; giving food to the poor) and Paul is referring to the “Mosaic law” (which included both the legal, moral and ceremonial law) or any works which oblige God to give us payment. Here is more proof:

Rom. 3:20,28; Gal. 2:16 – Paul’s phrase for “works of the law” in the Greek is “ergon nomou” which means the Mosaic law or Torah and refers to the teachings (legal, moral) and works (ceremonial) that gave the Jews the knowledge of sin, but not an escape from sin. We have further proof of this from the Dead Sea Scrolls which provide the Hebrew equivalent (“hrvt ysm”) meaning “deeds of the law,” or Mosaic law. James in James 2 does not use “ergon nomou.” He uses “ergois agathois.” Therefore, Paul’s “works of the law” and James’ “works” are entirely different types of works. Again, they could never contradict each other because the Scriptures are the inspired word of God.

Rom. 3:29 – Paul confirms that works of the law in this case refer to the Mosaic law by rhetorically asking “Or is God the God of the Jews only?” It does not mean “good works.”

Rom. 4:9-17 – Paul provides further discussion that righteousness God seeks in us does not come from Mosaic law, but through faith. But notice that Paul also never says “faith alone.”

Rom. 9:31-32 – righteousness is pursued through faith, not works of the law. Again, “works of law” does not mean “good works.”

Rom. 11:6,11 – justification is no longer based on “works” of the law, but on the grace of Christ. Why? Because salvation is also for the Gentiles.

Rom. 15:9-12 – Paul explains that Christ also saves the Gentiles. Therefore, “works of law” are no longer required.

Acts 13:39 – Luke also confirms this by providing that we have been “freed from the law of Moses.” This is the “works of the law” from which we have been freed.

Rom. 3:20,28 – in addition to the Mosaic law, as stated above, “works of the law” can also refer to anything that makes God a debtor to us. This is because law requires payment, but grace is a free gift from God. Therefore, faith must be behind every good work in order for it to be a work of grace. If not, it is a work of debt, and we cannot obligate God to do anything for us.

Rom. 4:3-4 – Paul refers to works apart from God’s grace. We do not obligate God to give us grace like an employee obligates his employer to pay wages. Faith in Christ must be behind our good works in order for it to be considered a work of grace; otherwise, it is a work of law or obligation.

Rom. 6:23 – this is why Paul says the “wages” of sin is death. Eternal life is a free gift from God. We cannot obligate God to pay us for our works; otherwise, we are in a system of law, not a system of grace.

Rom. 11:6 – Paul says that if justification is now based on grace, it is no longer on the basis of works; otherwise, grace would no longer be grace.

Rom. 11:35 – it is impossible to obligate God for payment, and sinful to think we can. We cannot do “works of the law” to obligate God. We are not in a debtor/creditor relationship with God. He owes us nothing. Instead, we are in a Father/child covenant relationship with Him, and He will reward us for being faithful.

Gal. 6:8-9 – the earnings referred to here are from God’s grace. It is a free gift, not an obligation. This underscores that our relationship with God is Father/son and daughter, not employer/employee.

Rom. 8:14-17; Heb. 12:5-11 – these texts further emphasize our father/son relationship with God. Our relationship is familial, not legal.

Rom. 7:6 – we are now discharged from the “law,” that is “works of the law.” We now serve God in faith working in love.

Rom. 10:4 – Christ is the end of the “law.” We are now justified by faith in Christ, not faith in the law.

Rom. 13:8,10 – loving one another is fulfilling the new law of Christ. This is internal and personal, not external and impersonal.

Gal. 2:16 – again, man is not justified by “works of the law.” Again, Paul is referring to the Mosaic law and anything which views God as a debtor to us.

Gal. 2:19,21 – justification “through the law” means justification through the Mosaic law or a legal system that makes God a debtor to us.

Gal. 3:10 – shows that “works of the law” refers to the “book of the law” which was the strict and impersonal Mosaic law of the Old Testament.

Gal. 3:17 – this “law” came 430 years after Abraham. So “works of law” here clearly refer to the Mosaic law, not “good works.”

Gal. 3:13; 4:4-5 – in fact, the “works of the law” (not good works in God’s grace) is a curse from which Christ freed us.

Gal. 3:19 – these “works of law” were only good for showing us our sinfulness, but not teaching us how to live.

Gal. 5:4,14; 6:2 – the “law” is of no use. The new law is the law of Christ, which is faith working through love.

Eph. 2:8-9 – we have been saved by grace through faith, not because of “works,” lest anyone boast. This much-quoted verse by Protestants refers to the “works” of the Mosaic law or any works performed in a legalistic sense, where we view God as a debtor to us, and not as our heavenly Father. Paul is teaching us that, with the coming of Christ, we are now saved by grace through faith, not by Mosaic or legal works.

This is why Paul refers to “works of ourselves” and so we can’t “boast.” Paul says the same thing about “works” Rom. 4:2,4 – if Abraham was justified by “works,” he would have something to “boast” about. Here, the wages are not counted as grace, but debt. “Boasting” does not attribute works to God, but to oneself. But good works done in faith are necessary for justification (James 2:24, etc.) because we receive rewards by grace, not by legal obligation, and we attribute these works to God, not ourselves.

Eph. 2:10 – in quoting Ephesians 2:8-9, Protestants invariably ignore the very next verse. Right after Paul’s teaching on “works” referring to Mosaic law, Paul says we are created in Christ for “good works” – a clear distinction between “works of law” (Mosaic law/legal payment) and “good works” (law of Christ/reward of grace).
THE ERROR OF USING GOOD WORKS INTERCHANGEABLY WITH WORKS OF THE LAW AS IF THEY MEAN THE SAME THING OCCURS IN EVERY FORUM ON THE INTERNET EVERY DAY AND TWICE ON SUNDAYS.
 
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Candidus

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Well then, if (Rom. 6:3-6) is referring to Holy Spirit baptism then one is immersed into the spirit and then raised up out of the spirit.

What good would that do?

It says clearly Who we are baptized into.... Christ. Only the Holy Spirit can place us into Christ, not water. “Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?If Paul meant water instead of Jesus Christ, wouldn’t he have said so? This is a spiritual baptism, in which we identify with the death of Christ. This is the same spiritual baptism Paul refers to in 1 Cor. 12:13, where he says, “For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body.

But you will note that the Bible NEVER says anyone is baptized "into" the Holy Spirit, but "with" the Holy Spirit! Notice that no one was ever "immersed" into the Spirit, but that the Spirit is applied to the believer. The symbol and the Substance is ALWAYS externally applied.

Matt. 3:11. 'I baptize you with water; he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost and with fire.'

Mark 1:8. 'I have baptized you with water, but he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost.'

Luke 3:16. 'I baptize you with water, but he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost and with fire.'

John 1:33. 'He that sent me to baptize with water, the same is he that baptizeth with the Holy Ghost.'

Acts 1:5. 'John truly baptized with water, but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost.'

Acts 10:37,38. ‘And began from Galilee , after the baptism which John preached, how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power.'

Acts 11:15. 'The Holy Ghost fell on them; then remembered I the word of the Lord: John indeed baptized with water, but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost.'

Isaiah 32:15. 'Until the Spirit be poured upon us from on high.'

Isaiah 44:3. 'I will pour water upon him that is thirsty and floods upon the dry ground; I will pour my Spirit upon thy seed and my blessing upon thine offspring.'

Isaiah 52:15. 'So shall he sprinkle many nations.'

Ezek. 34:29. 'I have poured out my Spirit upon the house of Israel .'

Joel 2:28, 29. ‘I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh, and your sons and your daughters shall prophecy; and upon the servants and upon the handmaids in those days will I pour out of my Spirit.'

Zech. 12:10. 'And I will pour upon the house of David and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem the Spirit of grace and of supplication.'

No one is ever baptized by the Holy Spirit through immersion. This baptism is described as:

Abiding upon them, John 1:32.

Anointing them, Acts 10:38.

Breathed on them, John 20:22.

Coming upon them, Acts 1:8; 9:6.

Descending on them, John 1:32.

Falling on them, Acts 8:16; 10:44.

Filling them, Acts 2:4; 9:17.

Poured upon them, Acts 1:17; 10:45.

Resting on them, 1 Pet. 4:14.

Sent from on high, Luke 24:49; 1 Pet. 1:9.

Shed on them, Acts 1:33; Titus 3:6.

Sitting upon them, Acts 2:3.

The Holy Spirit is always applied to the object; the object (people) are never applied or immersed "into" the Holy Spirit. All these things are called by Scripture…. Baptism!
 
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Marymog

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If you are referring to the house/household of God spoken of in 1 Tim. 3:15, then my answer is yes. How about you now answering my questions? They aren't too difficult for you to answer, aren't they?

At the time Paul wrote that passage to Timothy, where do you say one can find the house/household of God, the church of the living God?

At the time of the apostles, what do you read in scriptures about the church, was it called by a single name?

So, why do you say it is the Roman Catholic church?


Tong
R0889
Let’s look at context. 1 Timothy is a pastoral letter telling Timothy how bishops and deacons should act in the household of God. Paul tells Timothy he may be delayed and if he is how Timothy should act: : I hope to come to you soon, but I am writing these instructions to you so that, 15 if I am delayed, you may know how one ought to behave in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and Bulwark of truth.

So what is that household of God? It CANNOT be each individual Christian so it must be The Church; bishops and deacons. As we know they are worthy of double honor because they are looking out for and responsible for your soul....just like scripture says
 
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Marymog

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At the time of the apostles, what do you read in scriptures about the church, was it called by a single name?

So, why do you say it is the Roman Catholic church?


Tong
R0889
Yes, it was called by a single name: The Church

In the year 107 it was first called the Catholic Church. What church (denomination) do you belong too? When did it get named and by whom?
 

Marymog

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What are the "keys to the Kingdom"? Peter's 2 tiny NT Books?
Lol....thanks for chiming in. I see you have no answer but a desire to learn your Christian history and Scripture.

What Jesus was doing when he gave Peter, and ONLY Peter, the keys would have been apparent to any Jew of that time that knew the (what we call) OT. The disciples were very familiar with Isaiah 22. And you should be also:

Thus says the Lord God of hosts, “Come, go to this steward, to Shebna, who is over the household . . . and I will clothe him with your robe, and will bind your girdle on him, and will commit your authority to his hand; and he shall be a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem and to the house of Judah. And I will place on his shoulder the key of the house of David; he shall open, and none shall shut; and he shall shut, and none shall open (Isa. 22:15, 21-22, emphasis added).

In the Davidic Kingdom the king instituted a right-hand man called his steward. Jesus instituted Peter as his right hand man.

The steward of the Davidic kingdom was the prime minister. The steward of this new kingdom is Christ. In the absence of Christ the King the steward, which was Peter after the crucifixion of Jesus, would exercise the king’s authority until he returned.

Soooo putting it all together: Peter is the rock that Christ built his church upon. Jesus did not make anyone else ‘the rock’.

Peter and ONLY Peter was given the keys to the kingdom of heaven.

Peter was singularly given the authority to bind and loosen.

Jesus prayed that Peter, the leader of the Apostles, would strengthen his brothers. He did not pray that for any of the other Apostles.

Historically this, that Peter was the leader of the Apostles and Church after the death of Christ, has been taught by The Church for 2,000 years.

I love bible study!
 

kcnalp

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Lol....thanks for chiming in. I see you have no answer but a desire to learn your Christian history and Scripture.

Yes, I have been studying the Bible over 40 years. I have nearly 40 English Bible translations. "Catholic" is not in any of them that I know of.

What Jesus was doing when he gave Peter, and ONLY Peter, the keys would have been apparent to any Jew of that time that knew the (what we call) OT. The disciples were very familiar with Isaiah 22. And you should be also

And I am quite familiar with the OT.

Thus says the Lord God of hosts, “Come, go to this steward, to Shebna, who is over the household . . . and I will clothe him with your robe, and will bind your girdle on him, and will commit your authority to his hand; and he shall be a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem and to the house of Judah. And I will place on his shoulder the key of the house of David; he shall open, and none shall shut; and he shall shut, and none shall open (Isa. 22:15, 21-22, emphasis added).

In the Davidic Kingdom the king instituted a right-hand man called his steward. Jesus instituted Peter as his right hand man.

You mean Peter who betrayed Jesus?

The steward of the Davidic kingdom was the prime minister. The steward of this new kingdom is Christ. In the absence of Christ the King the steward, which was Peter after the crucifixion of Jesus, would exercise the king’s authority until he returned. Soooo putting it all together: Peter is the rock that Christ built his church upon. Jesus did not make anyone else ‘the rock’.

Peter and ONLY Peter was given the keys to the kingdom of heaven.

Peter was singularly given the authority to bind and loosen.

Jesus prayed that Peter, the leader of the Apostles, would strengthen his brothers. He did not pray that for any of the other Apostles.

Historically this, that Peter was the leader of the Apostles and Church after the death of Christ, has been taught by The Church for 2,000 years.

I love bible study!
I've read Peter's 2 tiny Books of the NT. Not a hint of what you are saying.
 

BreadOfLife

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What are the "keys to the Kingdom"? Peter's 2 tiny NT Books?
To understand what the "Keys" that were given to Peter are - you need to understand OT TYPE and NT FULFILLMENT.

Isaiah 22:20–22 - In that day I will call my servant Eliakim the son of Hilkiah, and I will clothe him with your robe, and will bind your girdle on him, and will commit your authority to his hand; and he shall be a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem and to the house of Judah. And I will place on his shoulder the key of the house of David; he shall open, and none shall shut; and he shall shut, and none shall open."

Matt. 16:18-19 - And so I say to you, you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church, and the gates of the netherworld shall not prevail against it. I will give you the keys to the kingdom of heaven. Whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven."

The OT Type that was the House of David - and which the keys were given to Eliakim was modeled after the Kingdom of Heaven - and those keys are given to Peter.

NT Fulfillments are ALWAYS more perfect than their OT Types - without exception . . .
 
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BreadOfLife

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Yes, I have been studying the Bible over 40 years. I have nearly 40 English Bible translations. "Catholic" is not in any of them that I know of.
Then you missed a spot . . .

Acts 9:31 talks about how the Early Church grew throughout the region. The language used here describes the Catholic Church:
“Then the church throughout Judea, Galilee, and Samaria experienced peace and thus was strengthened. Living in the fear of the Lord and in the encouragement of the Holy Spirit, the church increased in numbers.”

According to Strong’s Greek Concordance which is used by Protestants AND Catholics alike – the verse is translated as:
“The true Church throughout all Judea . . .”

Here is the phrase in Greek:
η μεν ουν εκκλησια καθ ολης της ιουδαιας

The Catholic Church gets its name from the GREEK for “according to the whole” and “universal” - εκκλησια καθ ολης, which is pronounced “katah-holos”.

Εκκλησια (ekklesia) - A gathering of citizens called out from their homes into some public place, an assembly; CHURCH
καθ (katah) - Through out, according to
ολης (holos) - All, whole, completely
"Kata-holos"
= CATHOLIC.
 
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kcnalp

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To understand what the "Keys" that were given to Peter are - you need to understand OT TYPE and NT FULFILLMENT.

Isaiah 22:20–22 - In that day I will call my servant Eliakim the son of Hilkiah, and I will clothe him with your robe, and will bind your girdle on him, and will commit your authority to his hand; and he shall be a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem and to the house of Judah. And I will place on his shoulder the key of the house of David; he shall open, and none shall shut; and he shall shut, and none shall open."

Matt. 16:18-19 - And so I say to you, you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church, and the gates of the netherworld shall not prevail against it. I will give you the keys to the kingdom of heaven. Whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven."

The OT Type that was the House of David - and which the keys were given to Eliakim was modeled after the Kingdom of Heaven - and those keys are given to Peter.

NT Fulfillments are ALWAYS more perfect than their OT Types - without exception . . .
Please tell us where Peter said any of this in his 2 tiny Books.
 

kcnalp

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Then you missed a spot . . .

Acts 9:31 talks about how the Early Church grew throughout the region. The language used here describes the Catholic Church:
“Then the church throughout Judea, Galilee, and Samaria experienced peace and thus was strengthened. Living in the fear of the Lord and in the encouragement of the Holy Spirit, the church increased in numbers.”

According to Strong’s Greek Concordance which is used by Protestants AND Catholics alike – the verse is translated as:
“The true Church throughout all Judea . . .”

Here is the phrase in Greek:
η μεν ουν εκκλησια καθ ολης της ιουδαιας

The Catholic Church gets its name from the GREEK for “according to the whole” and “universal” - εκκλησια καθ ολης, which is pronounced “katah-holos”.

Εκκλησια (ekklesia) - A gathering of citizens called out from their homes into some public place, an assembly; CHURCH
καθ (katah) - Through out, according to
ολης (holos) - All, whole, completely
"Kata-holos"
= CATHOLIC.
How are you qualified to rewrite all of our English Bibles?
 

BreadOfLife

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You mean Peter who betrayed Jesus?
Yup - THAT Peter.
The SAME Peter whom Jesus forgave.

The SAME Peter whom Jesus told that He prayed for him ALONE to strengthen his brothers when they turned back (Luke 22:31-32).
The SAME Peter whom Jesus asked to Feed His Lambs (John 21:16).
The SAME Peter whom Jesus asked to Tend His Sheep (John 21:16).
The SAME Peter whom Jesus asked to Feed His Sheep (John 21:17).
The SAME Peter whom Jesus told he was going to build His Church upon (Matt. 16:18).
The SAME Peter whom Jesus Jesus singled out and said that WHATEVER he bound or loosed on earth would also be bound and loosed in Heaven (Matt. 16:19).
The SAME Peter who is mentioned more than ANY other disciple of Christ in the NT.
The SAME Peter who is named "First" (Protos) of the Apostles (Matt. 10:3) - even though he was NOT the first chosen.

Yup - THAT Peter.
 
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