The False Doctrine with key word "COVER"

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marks

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To a German what must they think when we use a phrase like, the guy let the cat out of the bag?
I see nothing in those passages to make me think any of the words are used idiomatically. Just straightforward statements.

Much love!
 

CharismaticLady

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I see nothing in those passages to make me think any of the words are used idiomatically. Just straightforward statements.

Much love!

All I'm saying is that you have to know how the apostles thought in order to understand their writings; not just idioms, but styles, like parallelisms and contrasts, such as 1 John 1:8 is a verse of darkness in a list of contrasts between light vs. darkness. But westerners, especially those who want to believe that sinlessness is impossible, will believe that is a verse about those in the light - Christians - even though it contradicts chapter 3 completely. Sometimes I get so tired of the ignorance on these forums, it gives me a headache. I can do only so much explaining these important hermeneutics, and am just met with so much arrogance it sickens me.
 

marks

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All I'm saying is that you have to know how the apostles thought in order to understand their writings; not just idioms, but styles, like parallelisms and contrasts, such as 1 John 1:8 is a verse of darkness in a list of contrasts between light vs. darkness. But westerners, especially those who want to believe that sinlessness is impossible, will believe that is a verse about those in the light - Christians - even though it contradicts chapter 3 completely. Sometimes I get so tired of the ignorance on these forums, it gives me a headache.
So now you've thrown into the mix "intellectual dishonesty". You're digging deeper and deeper.

:eek:
 

marks

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Can't someone have a different opinion from you without you feeling compelled to run them into the ground with your little digs?
 

marks

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I didn't but you will go sulk anyway.
I'm just trying to point these things out to direct the discussion back to a higher level.

Projecting emotional states
. " . . . you will go sulk" as if now This will impugn me.
 

ChristisGod

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ROFL There are two definitions. You only know one, and misapply divine power as unmerited favor. You are belittling God.
Nice try but you are wrong as you falsely claimed charis means power by quoting the oxford dictionary.
I corrected you by giving a biblical definition of charis from two different Greek sources proving it means
(a) grace, as a gift or blessing brought to man by Jesus Christ,
(b) favor,
(c) gratitude, thanks,
(d) a favor, kindness.

and not power which proves you are wrong.

Now you try and claim something entirely different saying its Hebrew parallelism. Well now you would have to prove that by quoting the Hebrew O.T. with the Hebrew word grace and find an OT quotation in the N.T.

You just made your work an impossible task since you will not find it anywhere in the N.T.

I have a work done by Hebrew and Greek Scholars which quotes every single OT quotation found in the NT. Its not there.

So now you have an argument from silence another strawman on your part.

James 3:1
My brethren, be not many teachers, knowing that we shall receive the greater condemnation.

hope this helps !!!
 

justbyfaith

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Well I don't know if badgering anyone in their misbeliefs will convert them, but Paul in Timothy said we must.

Chapter and verse, please?

Heb 10:14

For by one offering he has perfected forever those who are being sanctified! Sanctification is hagiazo which root is hagos or to make holy!

Heb 10:14, For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.

I believe that the kjv on Hebrews 10:14 is more accurate for the following reason:

The context,

Heb 10:10, By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

If we are merely being sanctified (as with watered-down versions of Hebrews 10:14) then Hebrews 10:10, to be consistent, would also need to say that we are being sanctified. But it doesn't. It says we are sanctified. Compare this to 1 Thessalonians 5:23-24 (kjv) and you will find that the author of Hebrews in Hebrws 10:10 is saying that we are sanctified wholly.

Therefore it is inaccurate to say that "he has perfected for ever those who are being made holy."

It is more accurate to say that "he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified."

Furthermore, to say that we are being made holy may actually be accurate if you are referring to the fact that we are continually being cleansed from all sin (1 John 1:7)....that the moment dirt comes in from the outside, the blood of Jesus washes it. In this sense we are continually "being made holy" while at the same time we have been perfected in the practical sense...in that we have been sanctified wholly and continue to be sanctified wholly by the continued washing of the blood of Jesus.

Why would Paul teach us to keep denying ungodliness if everyone had stopped ungodliness and fully perfected, sanctified and fully mature so that they have no need to learn anymore about what ungodly things may be?

Why would God tell us in the ten commandments "Thou shalt not kill" unless He were saying that everyone is a murderer and has committed the dastardly deed of killing another?

So you are sinless huh ?

John says you are a liar as per 1 John 1:7-10

Again, 1 John 1:8 is in reference to indwelling sin, not practical sinning.

For 1 John 3:9, 1 John 3:6, 1 John 2:17 show us plainly that we can come to a place where we do not commit sin in the practical sense.

While 1 John 1:8 tells us that we all have sin as an element dwelling on the inside of us; but that it can be rendered dead (Romans 6:6, Galatians 5:24, Romans 7:8) so that it no longer has any say over our behaviour (Romans 6:14).

I teach people we are free to live holy!

That's strange....because you seem to be a proponent of the doctrine of the inevitability of sin; which is heresy.

And likewise ............................

No.

" In Essentials Unity, In Non-Essentials Liberty, In All Things Charity "

What's the chapter and verse on that? Luke 16:10?

No real bible student would ever use a dictionary from the world to define biblical words and their meaning. They would use a Hebrew and Greek dictionary not an english dictionary.

It is fine to use an English dictionary to look up biblical words.

God did not create languages in such a way that His unadulterated message would be compromised in the translation of the Bible from Greek or Hebrew to English.

He is both sovereign, and loving, and Omnipotent.
 
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ChristisGod

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Chapter and verse, please?



Heb 10:14, For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.

I believe that the kjv on Hebrews 10:14 is more accurate for the following reason:

The context,

Heb 10:10, By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

If we are merely being sanctified (as with watered-down versions of Hebrews 10:14) then Hebrews 10:10, to be consistent, would also need to say that we are being sanctified. But it doesn't. It says we are sanctified. Compare this to 1 Thessalonians 5:23-24 (kjv) and you will find that the author of Hebrews in Hebrws 10:10 is saying that we are sanctified wholly.

Therefore it is inaccurate to say that "he has perfected for ever those who are being made holy."

It is more accurate to say that "he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified."

Furthermore, to say that we are being made holy may actually be accurate if you are referring to the fact that we are continually being cleansed from all sin (1 John 1:7)....that the moment dirt comes in from the outside, the blood of Jesus washes it. In this sense we are continually "being made holy" while at the same time we have been perfected in the practical sense...in that we have been sanctified wholly and continue to be sanctified wholly by the continued washing of the blood of Jesus.



Why would God tell us in the ten commandments "Thou shalt not kill" unless He were saying that everyone is a murderer and has committed the dastardly deed of killing another?



Again, 1 John 1:8 is in reference to indwelling sin, not practical sinning.

For 1 John 3:9, 1 John 3:6, 1 John 2:17 show us plainly that we can come to a place where we do not commit sin in the practical sense.

While 1 John 1:8 tells us that we all have sin as an element dwelling on the inside of us; but that it can be rendered dead (Romans 6:6, Galatians 5:24, Romans 7:8) so that it no longer has any say over our behaviour (Romans 6:14).



That's strange....because you seem to be a proponent of the doctrine of the inevitability of sin; which is heresy.



No.



What's the chapter and verse on that? Luke 16:10?



It is fine to use an English dictionary to look up biblical words.

God did not create languages in such a way that His unadulterated message would be compromised in the translation of the Bible from Greek or Hebrew to English.

He is both sovereign, and loving, and Omnipotent.
Do you still sin or have you committed a sin lets say in the past year ? yes or no
 

marks

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If we are merely being sanctified (as with watered-down versions of Hebrews 10:14) then Hebrews 10:10, to be consistent, would also need to say that we are being sanctified. But it doesn't. It says we are sanctified.
In Vs 10, the same word appears in the perfect tense, meaning something that was done and remains done. In vs. 14, however, the tense is, again, present. There are two sanctifications going on here, one perfected before, and one being accomplished now.

This isn't from "watering down" the Bible, rather, it shows the words it is written with.

Much love!
 

justbyfaith

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Do you still sin or have you committed a sin lets say in the past year ? yes or no
yes.

To me, the concept that I can be sanctified wholly is good news, though I have not attained to it myself.

In Romans 4:20-22, I find that I am justified because I stagger not at the promise of God through unbelief.

Such promises as 1 Thessalonians 5:23-24 (kjv), Hebrews 10:14 (kjv), 1 John 3:9 (kjv);

Jude 1:24, 2 Peter 1:10, 1 John 2:10;

And 1 John 3:7, 1 John 3:3, 1 John 2:6.

As well as 1 John 3:6, 1 John 2:17, and Colossians 2:11 (nlt).

Col 2:11 (nlt), When you came to Christ, you were “circumcised,” but not by a physical procedure. Christ performed a spiritual circumcision—the cutting away of your sinful nature.
 
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justbyfaith

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In Vs 10, the same word appears in the perfect tense, meaning something that was done and remains done. In vs. 14, however, the tense is, again, present. There are two sanctifications going on here, one perfected before, and one being accomplished now.

This isn't from "watering down" the Bible, rather, it shows the words it is written with.

Much love!
covered that.
 

BloodBought 1953

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No, I'm not serious, silly. In context you will see Jesus saved him from his FORMER life. And of all the sins the apostles committed in their former lives, Paul's was the worst.

12 And I thank Christ Jesus our Lord who has enabled me, because He counted me faithful, putting me into the ministry, 13 although I was formerly a blasphemer, a persecutor, and an insolent man; but I obtained mercy because I did it ignorantly in unbelief. 14 And the grace of our Lord was exceedingly abundant, with faith and love which are in Christ Jesus. 15 This is a faithful saying and worthy of all acceptance, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners, of whom I am chief. 16 However, for this reason I obtained mercy, that in me first Jesus Christ might show all longsuffering, as a pattern to those who are going to believe on Him for everlasting life. 17 Now to the King eternal, immortal, invisible, to God who alone is wise, be honor and glory forever and ever. Amen.
No, I'm not serious, silly. In context you will see Jesus saved him from his FORMER life. And of all the sins the apostles committed in their former lives, Paul's was the worst.

12 And I thank Christ Jesus our Lord who has enabled me, because He counted me faithful, putting me into the ministry, 13 although I was formerly a blasphemer, a persecutor, and an insolent man; but I obtained mercy because I did it ignorantly in unbelief. 14 And the grace of our Lord was exceedingly abundant, with faith and love which are in Christ Jesus. 15 This is a faithful saying and worthy of all acceptance, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners, of whom I am chief. 16 However, for this reason I obtained mercy, that in me first Jesus Christ might show all longsuffering, as a pattern to those who are going to believe on Him for everlasting life. 17 Now to the King eternal, immortal, invisible, to God who alone is wise, be honor and glory forever and ever. Amen.

Had enough of this poor, confused Lady’s Tripe yet......? I have......

Christian Standard Bible
Not that I have already reached the goal or am ALREADY PERFECT , but I make every effort to take hold of it because I also have been taken hold of by Christ Jesus.
 

justbyfaith

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Had enough of this poor, confused Lady’s Tripe yet......? I have......

Christian Standard Bible
Not that I have already reached the goal or am ALREADY PERFECT , but I make every effort to take hold of it because I also have been taken hold of by Christ Jesus.

Phl 3:12, Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus.
Phl 3:13, Brethren, I count not myself to have apprehended: but this one thing I do, forgetting those things which are behind, and reaching forth unto those things which are before,
Phl 3:14, I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of God in Christ Jesus.
Phl 3:15, Let us therefore, as many as be perfect, be thus minded: and if in any thing ye be otherwise minded, God shall reveal even this unto you.
 

CharismaticLady

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Nice try but you are wrong as you falsely claimed charis means power by quoting the oxford dictionary.
I corrected you by giving a biblical definition of charis from two different Greek sources proving it means
(a) grace, as a gift or blessing brought to man by Jesus Christ,
(b) favor,
(c) gratitude, thanks,
(d) a favor, kindness.

and not power which proves you are wrong.

Now you try and claim something entirely different saying its Hebrew parallelism. Well now you would have to prove that by quoting the Hebrew O.T. with the Hebrew word grace and find an OT quotation in the N.T.

You just made your work an impossible task since you will not find it anywhere in the N.T.

I have a work done by Hebrew and Greek Scholars which quotes every single OT quotation found in the NT. Its not there.

So now you have an argument from silence another strawman on your part.

James 3:1
My brethren, be not many teachers, knowing that we shall receive the greater condemnation.

hope this helps !!!

Oxford dictionary? Is that all you saw? The Word of God backs up that second definition.