Hi epouraniois, Psalms 102:25 is indeed speaking of God as having "laid the foundations of the earth itself, and the heavens are the work of your hands." However, the apostle Paul in quoting from this Psalm at Hebrews 1:10, did not apply it to Jesus but rather to God himself, for Paul was contrasting the "Son's" permanence with that of the physical creation, which God, if he so designed, could 'wrap up just as a cloak' and set aside. Too, at Hebrews 1:9, Paul quotes from Psalms 45:7, in which Paul applies to Jesus, saying: "You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness. That is why God, your God, anointed you rather than your companions with the oil of gladness."(International Standard Version) If Jesus were God, then why is he spoken here as being anointed by "your God" ? Too, the writer of Psalms 45 was originally addressing a human king. Would Paul have then made this Psalm now apply to God ? Hardly, especially since God never anoints himself nor is he spoken of as having companions. However, Jesus is spoken of as having "companions" or "partners", for Paul says that "he was obliged to become like his “brothers” in all respects, that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, in order to offer propitiatory sacrifice for the sins of the people."(Heb 2:17) Does God have "brothers" on this earth or does he become a "merciful...high priest in things pertaining to God" ? No, but Jesus does.(Matt 25:34-40)Thus, what God said at Isaiah 48:13 does not apply to Jesus, which reads: "Moreover, my own hand laid the foundation of the earth, and my own right hand extended out the heavens. I am calling to them, that they may keep standing together." Proverbs 8:22,23, in personifying wisdom, said that "Jehovah himself produced me as the beginning of his way, the earliest of his achievements of long ago. From time indefinite I was installed, from the start, from times earlier than the earth." Could this be God's wisdom ? No. Why ? Because God has always possessed wisdom. Yet the "wisdom" here was "produced" or was "possessed" by God himself and had a beginning. The Hebrew word there for "produced" is qa·na´ni, or in Koine Greek as e´kti·sen´ me, which can literally be translated as "created me". Thus, Jesus had a beginning, was "produced", whereas his Father did not, for his Father, God, is indeed from "everlasting to everlasting".(Psalms 90:2 King James Bible) Jesus is rightly calls himself God's "only-begotten Son" at John 3:16. The word "begotten" comes from the word beget, meaning "to cause, bring about, produce".(Encarta Dictionary) Thus, Jesus was "produced" or was ' brought about ' by being created by the Father, God. In addition, at Proverbs 8:30, he is spoken of as God's "master worker". Some translations say "master workman"(American Standard Version),"workman"(Young's Bible), "nursling"(Darby's Bible). There the Hebrew word is ’a·mohn´, meaning literally a fosterling or a child who is nurtured, one who is provided with care and upbringing. Thus Jesus, as the personification of God's wisdom, was brought up as God's "only-begotten Son", even as a foster child is provided with "care and upbringing". He therefore is not equal to God, for no "fosterling" is equal to his parents. This proverb further says that "I was daily his delight, rejoicing always before him;"(King James Bible) That it is not just wisdom personified spoken of there, is the fact that God has for all eternity has had wisdom and was not "produced". Hence, Jesus, who is called the "Word", is indeed God's Spokesman, speaking God's wisdom. He told his Jewish listeners: "What I teach is not mine, but belongs to him that sent me. If anyone desires to do His will, he will know concerning the teaching whether it is from God or I speak of my own originality."(John 7:16,17) Thus, Jesus was God's "master worker", working with God to create "all things".(Col 1:15)Naturally God "is our judge", by reason of his being our Creator, for he has the right to judge any of his creation. That is why Isaiah wrote: "For Jehovah is our judge, Jehovah is our lawgiver, Jehovah is our king; he will save us."(Isaiah 33:22 American Standard Version) However, the apostle Paul wrote: "God has overlooked the times of such ignorance, yet now he is telling mankind that they should all everywhere repent. Because he has set a day in which he purposes to judge the inhabited earth in righteousness by a man whom he has appointed, and he has furnished a guarantee to all men in that he has resurrected him from the dead.”(Acts 17:30,31) Thus, the "man", Jesus, was resurrected and then later "appointed" by God to "judge the inhabited earth". Does God have to appoint himself to be "judge"? No. Thus, Jesus is "destined to judge the living and the dead".(2 Tim 4:1) Furthermore, Jesus said that "For the Father judges no one at all, but he has committed all the judging to the Son."(John 5:22)At Revelation 1:8, God is called the "Alpha and the Omega". And again at Revelation 21:6 and at 22:13. However, this title never applies to Jesus Christ, For verses 12-15 is where God is speaking, but in verse 16 Jesus is personally speaking. There is a change in speakers between verse 15 and 16. At Isaiah 44:6, God is identifying himself as the one and only almighty God. In the original Hebrew at Isaiah 44:6, there is no definite article with the words “first” and “last,” whereas in Jesus’ description of himself in the original Greek at Revelation 1:17, the definite article is found. So, grammatically, Revelation 1:17 indicates a title, whereas Isaiah 44:6 describes God’s Godship.God is not the only one that can forgive sins, for he has granted this "authority" to Jesus. For example, at Mark 2, before Jesus had healed the paralytic, in having in mind the scribes, he then says: "Why are you reasoning these things in your hearts? Which is easier, to say to the paralytic, ‘Your sins are forgiven,’ or to say, ‘Get up and pick up your cot and walk’? But in order for you men to know that the Son of man has authority to forgive sins upon the earth, I say to you, Get up, pick up your cot, and go to your home.”(Mark 2:9-11, "has authority", Young's Bible, Weymouth's New Testament, International Standard Version, William's New Testament, Montgomery New Testament, New World Translation) In further understanding that Jesus can be "granted" power or authority, Jesus again says that " For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself; and hath given him authority to execute judgment also, because he is the Son of man."(John 5:26,27 King James Bible) A modern English translation reads here: "For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted also to the Son to have life in himself. And he has given him authority to do judging, because Son of man he is."(New World Translation) If Jesus were God, then why was it neccessary to 'grant' "the Son", Jesus, to "have life in himself ", or literally "in himself the gift of life" ? At Isaiah 9:6, the account does not say that Jesus has been without beginning, being eternal, but rather that he is given a title of "Eternal Father" and "Mighty God"(’El Gib·bohr´, not ’El Shad·dai´ meaning Almighty God). These titles give us a description of his future work and power, since he has been given the authority to resurrect people from the dead, being "given authority to do judging". At Isaiah 10:21, the prophet Isaiah spoke of God as “the Mighty God.” Some try to use this similarity of wording to prove that Jesus is God. But we need to be careful about reading too much into these verses. The Hebrew expression rendered “Mighty God” is not limited to God as is the expression “God Almighty.” (Genesis 17:1) Admittedly, there is a difference between being mighty and being almighty, with no superior.At Acts 20:28, not all Bibles render it as: "to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood."(King James Bible) There is vast difference between "his own blood" (King James Bible) and the "blood of his own". Yet, this is what the Emphatic Diaglott, in it's interlinear reading, which says:"through the blood of the own" This is also true of the Westcott and Hort Greek Text, The New Testament in the Original Greek (originally published in 1881). A footnote in the Emphatic Diaglott says of Acts 20:28: "Greisbach, and nearly all modern editors, read "Church of the Lord". The phrase ecclesia tou Kurious nowhere occurs in the New Testament, while ecclesia tou theou occurs about ten times in Paul's epistles. There are no less than six different readings of this phrase in the MSS.,(manuscripts) which have probably arisen from a presumed difficulty in understanding it in connection with the latter part of the sentence---"purchased with his own blood." But read as it stands in the original, and it still makes good sense, without rejecting the reading of the most ancient MS.,(manuscript) and some of the oldest Peshito Syriac copies. The reader can supply the elliptical word after "own", whether it be "Son", or "Lamb", or "Sacrifice", thus, "feed the CHURCH of God, which he acquired by the BLOOD of his OWN [Son]." The Greek words (tou i·di´ou) follow the phrase “with the blood.” The entire expression could be translated “with the blood of his own.” A noun in the singular number would be understood after “his own,” most likely God’s closest relative, his only-begotten Son Jesus Christ. On this point J. H. Moulton in A Grammar of New Testament Greek, Vol. 1 (Prolegomena), 1930 ed., p. 90, says: “Before leaving [i´di·os] something should be said about the use of [ho i´di·os] without a noun expressed. This occurs in John 1:11, 13:1, Acts 4:23, 24:23. In the papyri we find the singular used thus as a term of endearment to near relations . . . . In Expos. VI. iii. 277, I ventured to cite this as a possible encouragement to those (including B. Weiss) who would translate Acts 20:28 ‘the blood of one who was his own.’” Alternately, in The New Testament in the Original Greek, by scholars Westcott and Hort, Vol., 2, London, 1881, pp. 99, 100 of the Appendix, Hort stated: “it is by no means impossible that [hui·ou´, “of the Son”] dropped out after [tou i·di´ou, “of his own”] at some very early transcription affecting all existing documents. Its insertion leaves the whole passage free from difficulty of any kind.” As an example of this, Acts 4:23 says "And being let go, they went to their own company." Yet, there is no word there for "company", but rather this is understood as following the Greek tou i·di´ou in this Scripture. Some place "friends" after tou i·di´ou.(Weymouth New Testament, Young's Bible, interlinear reading - Emphatic Diaglott) Thus, at Acts 20:28, the word "Son" is appropriate there or the "blood of his own (Son)." Thus, some translations of the Bible render Acts 20:28 as "Pay attention to yourselves and to all the flock, among which the holy spirit has appointed you overseers, to shepherd the congregation of God, which he purchased with the blood of his own [Son]."(New World Translation, The Holy Bible in Modern English,1903, Today's English Version,1966,-"through the death of his own Son" ) Hence, the rendering of the King James Bible is by no means authoritative.Which rendering(s) agree with 1 John 1:7, which says: “The blood of Jesus his [God’s] Son cleanses us from all sin”? Furthermore, Revelation 1:5 says: "And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood." As stated in John 3:16, did God send his only-begotten Son, or did he himself come as a man, so that we might have life? It was the blood, not of God, but of his Son that was poured out. How can Jesus be "the faithful witness" and be God ? To whom would he be a witness if he were God ?Titus 2:13 does not identify God with Jesus Christ, but rather, these are separated by the word "and". Some argue that Titus 2:13 indicates that Christ is both God and Savior. Interestingly, Revised Standard Version, New English Bible, Today's English Version, and Jerusalem Bible render Titus 2:13 in a way that might be construed as allowing for that view, but they do not follow the same rule in their translation of 2 Thessalonians 1:12, where "the" was placed following the Greek word kai,(and) but does not at Titus 2:13, though the word "the" is not in the sentence at 1 Thessalonains 1:12. (The latter part of Titus 2:13 would then read "of the great God and the Savior of us, Jesus Christ" , in Greek - "tou megalou Theou kai (ho)Soteros hemon IesouChristou", with "the" distinguishing between God and Jesus). Henry Alford, in The Greek Testament, states: “I would submit that [a rendering that clearly differentiates God and Christ, at Titus 2:13] satisfies all the grammatical requirements of the sentence: that it is both structurally and contextually more probable, and more agreeable to the Apostle’s way of writing.” (Boston, 1877), Vol. III, p. 421. Hence, several Bibles render Titus 2:13 as "of the great God and of our Savior Christ Jesus”(The Riverside New Testament, Boston and New York, 1934), "of the great God and of our Saviour Christ Jesus"(A New Translation of the Bible, James Moffatt, New York and London, 1935), "of the great God and of our Savior Christ Jesus"(New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures, Brooklyn, 1950), "of the great God and of our Savior Jesus Christ”( La Sainte Bible, by Louis Segond, Paris, 1957), "of the great God and of our Savior Christ Jesus"(The New American Bible, New York and London, 1970), "of the great God and of Christ Jesus our saviour"(The New Testament in Modern English, by J. B. Phillips, New York, 1972)Regarding 1 Thessalonians 1:12, Theologian Vincent Taylor says: “It is manifest that Paul is speaking first of God and secondly of Christ.” The Roman Catholic scholar Karl Rahner puts 2 Peter 1:1 in the same category with 2 Thessalonians 1:12, explaining that in the Greek, theos (God) “here is clearly separated from ‘Christ.’”This post is longer than I would have liked it, but provides solid evidence that Jesus is not God, but, as Peter said: "You are the Christ, the Son of the living God".(Matt 16:16)