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Hold on a minute, you said in post #108 “The plaques are at the end, and probation closes as each case is decided as saints or sinners, and then the Second Coming of Christ.” Now you’re saying the unjust aren’t resurrection until after the millennium. Do the plagues happen before the millennium...

Where do you draw the line on what’s considered altering the book? Did you even look at the list? One example is Revelation 13:7, one version is “and it was given unto him to make war with the saints, and to overcome them”. The other version is “and it was given unto him to make war with the...

Ok thanks for that, we have something to work with here. From Wikipedia the origin of the black plague is disputed but genetic analysis suggests about 600 BC on the China border. How many outbreaks in the early years isn’t known but it was introduced to Europe in 1347. After the initial wave of...

I’ve heard Preterist say that the Revelation 22 warning was meant specifically for those to whom the book was written. Just as Philemon 1:23 isn’t meant for us today. Philemon 1:23 There salute thee Epaphras, my fellowprisoner in Christ Jesus; If the warning was meant only for those in the...

@Timtofly Well? I just gave you over 100 potential alterations made to the book. Are you going to say with absolute certainty that none of them were intentional? Have you found anyone that has experienced the literal plagues yet?

Here’s a list of discrepancies … Rev 1:5 "having washed away our" vs. "having washed away" vs. "having washed you from" vs. "having freed us from" (later manuscripts) (The words "freed" and "washed" are identical in Greek except that "freed" has "ou" and "washed" has "u"). Rev 1:6 "forever...

Yea, if it was just the one person that did it and no one else was involved. Have you found any evidence of anyone ever receiving the plagues in the past? Hint, the Preterist have the plagues literally occurring to those in Jerusalem in the first century.

That means either dead people can experience the plagues or there is a resurrection of the dead in order for them to experience the plagues. Which is it?

Can you give me just one documented case where someone has received the plagues for adding to the book?

So if someone gets the mark they no longer have free will? What makes you think that besides a literal interpretation of the plagues? It seems you have to give up some foundational beliefs to support literal plagues.

It’s kind of hard to keep the plagues a secret, if the people who attended a certain church all of a sudden started getting noisome, grievous sores at the same time that would make the medical records.

So if someone adds to the book and doesn’t receive any plagues then can we apply that same principle to sin? Maybe the penalty for sin will somehow not happen, just like the penalty for adding to the book. I don’t think so! God is just and His word is true.

I thought one of the main arguments for free will is that it is possible to resist God. Acts 7:51 Ye stiffnecked and uncircumcised in heart and ears, ye do always resist the Holy Ghost: as your fathers did, so do ye. Are you saying it’s no longer possible to resist God when the plagues come?

Well I don’t want to get into a debate on free will vs election, but if the people on earth have the ability to resist the gathering to Armageddon then it’s not just a matter of a spirit tell someone to go to battle. There are always people who will protest and resist just for the sake of doing...

Alright, I agree with you, once a person is dead they can’t experience literal plagues. Why are there no records of anyone who has added to the book experiencing any of the plagues? Someone changed 666 to 616 as seen in some of the manuscripts, did they experience any of the bowls or trumpet...

Let me ask you this, do you think the people on earth during the time of the plagues have free will or the ability to resist a spirit?

Well I guess I do understand it as the actual plagues that are written in Revelation that get added to a person. I can understand that the plagues themselves can be a type of plague or non-literal plague but it would still be the actual plague that is added. I think you see it as literal...

I’ve been thinking about this, if someone in the millennium were to alter the book of Revelation and the seven last plagues can only happen during the kingdom of Antichrist, then those plagues, and really any of the other plagues in Revelation that pertain only to the kingdom of Antichrist...

Right, that single spirit is the Adamic nature. In Mark 4:15 Satan cometh immediately, and taketh away the word that was sown in their hearts. Satan isn’t omnipresent so it can’t be Satan himself that does this, it’s our Adamic nature that gets attributed back to Satan from the fall of mankind.

Amos 8:11 Behold, the days come, saith the Lord GOD, that I will send a famine in the land, not a famine of bread, nor a thirst for water, but of hearing the words of the LORD: Here is an example of how a spiritual plague works. How can a person who has already died experience literal plagues?